brightfame52
Active Member
No the point is there, you just cant receive it. Thats nt my issueAnd yet, you pasted various text together to make a point that may not be there.
No the point is there, you just cant receive it. Thats nt my issueAnd yet, you pasted various text together to make a point that may not be there.
Why do you think I cannot receive it?No the point is there, you just cant receive it. Thats nt my issue
You kidding me right ? You have been opposing everything I show you, duhWhy do you think I cannot receive it?
Actually, I have not. I have not exegeted the text yet. I have only questioned your method of interpretation.You kidding me right ? You have been opposing everything I show you, duh
You haveActually, I have not.
Why not use the kjv ? Since when did that become a crime? The elect can never be under Gods wrath whatever version you use. Gods wrath is only upon them where sin is imputed. There is no sin imputed to Gods elect, their sin was imputed to Christ.I noticed you used the King James Version for your translation of Ephesians 2:3. Why is that?
No one has said it is a crime. In fact, one of the journals that I write for requires the KJV as the primary text. However, I sometimes have to paraphrase and explain text because of the very issue I demonstrated. You would do well to move to a more modern version, such as the NRSV or ESV.Why not use the kjv ? Since when did that become a crime? The elect can never be under Gods wrath whatever version you use. Gods wrath is only upon them where sin is imputed. There is no sin imputed to Gods elect, their sin was imputed to Christ.
No doubt, when reading that last statement, someone will have a "gotcha" moment here and say, "What about Romans 8:3 or Galatians 3:13, or 2 Corinthians 5:21?"No one has said it is a crime. In fact, one of the journals that I write for requires the KJV as the primary text. However, I sometimes have to paraphrase and explain text because of the very issue I demonstrated. You would do well to move to a more modern version, such as the NRSV or ESV.
I do not think you understand what the term "elect" means. Israel is primarily God's elect through the patriarchs (Romans 11:28-29; "but as regards election they are beloved, for the sake of their ancestors; for the gifts and the calling of God are irrevocable" Also, 9:4-5). Gentiles are adopted and share in the promise when they believe. However, being God's elect does not imply they are saved. In fact, God's wrath came to them in exile because of their disobedience.
Imputation is a confusing topic. If you read Romans 4, righteousness is imputed ("considered" or "declared") through faith, not through election (4:24-25). So even if you were individually elected from before time (you were not, but hypothetically, let's explore this), that does not mean your sins were imputed to Christ. He clearly died for us, but the term "impute" (logizomai; to declare) is not used here because that would mean that Christ is declared a sinner, which he is not. Christ, the innocent one, gave himself for us. He did not become a sinner (Heb. 4:15).
Romans 5:6-11 [ESV]To impute sin to Christ is to declare him a sinner. That we cannot do. He sacrifices himself for the sin of the world, but he remains innocent.
Well said !!!I noticed you used the King James Version for your translation of Ephesians 2:3. Why is that? The Greek ἀνεστράφημέν (from ἀναστρέφω) is best translated “lived” as in the ESV or the NRSV. “Conversation” in Older English meant the manner of life. It comes from the Latin word conversātiō which meant “living together, way of life, manner of conduct, intercourse (social or moral).” "Lived" is a much more contemporary way of expressing the Greek ἀναστρέφω. The BDAG puts it this way: “to conduct oneself in terms of certain principles, act, behave, conduct oneself, live, . . . always with the kind of behavior more exactly described.”
So, let’s put Ephesians 2:3 back into its immediate context. Here is Eph. 2:1–5 in the NRSV:
2:1 You were dead through the trespasses and sins 2 in which you once lived, following the course of this world, following the ruler of the power of the air, the spirit that is now at work among those who are disobedient. 3 All of us once lived among them in the passions of our flesh, following the desires of flesh and senses, and we were by nature children of wrath, like everyone else. 4 But God, who is rich in mercy, out of the great love with which he loved us 5 even when we were dead through our trespasses, made us alive together with Christ—by grace you have been saved—
So let us see what is being said here. The “you” (pl.) here is the Gentiles. That is evident from 2:11. The “we” are the Jews, who were the first to set their hope on Christ (1:11–12). The inheritance belongs to them. The Gentiles, when they believed receive the seal of the Holy Spirit (1:13). The pronouns in Ephesians are very important for understanding what is being said.
Gentile Christians were once dead following the course of this world, etc. That is, they were pagans and idol worshippers. Jews lived among them in the passions of the flesh. (In Ephesus, these would be considered Diaspora Jews.) They were, BY NATURE (φύσις), children of wrath, just like the Gentiles (everyone else). So both Jews and Gentiles were children of wrath. But God, rich in mercy, even when we were dead, made us alive again together (with you the Gentiles) with Christ. That means both Jews and Gentiles participate in Christ through faith (2:8). Gentiles, who once were far off, have now been brought near (2:11–13).
Paul is arguing for a united community of Jews and Gentiles where the wall of animosity has been broken down (2:14–16). This new community takes place in Christ.
What is key here is that both groups were, by nature, children of wrath. God’s mercy changes that nature through new birth.
I will not comment on the other verses at this time since my time is limited. You can find my argument about vessels of wrath and mercy in my book – Mercy for All.
No it's not, it's a transfer of the sinners guilt of sin to Christ account in a legal transaction, it doesn't alter Christ purity and inherent sinlessness. In the same fashion when the sinner is imputed with His Righteousness , it's a legal transaction and doesn't alter the sinners inherent sinfulnessTo impute sin to Christ is to declare him a sinner.
So Christ becomes a sinner, right? You just said the guilt is transferred. Therefore, he is guilty of sin. Moreover, the person is still a sinner. Therefore, you are not saved from the power of sin. It is just a fiction. In fact, some consider this view a "legal fiction." I do not think God deals in fictions.@Swordman
No it's not, it's a transfer of the sinners guilt of sin to Christ account in a legal transaction, it doesn't alter Christ purity and inherent sinlessness. In the same fashion when the sinner is imputed with His Righteousness , it's a legal transaction and doesn't alter the sinners inherent sinfulness
One big mistake made by calvinists is to conflate elect with salvation. The Jews/Israel were Gods chosen people yet most were not saved. They also misuse the Potter and the clay since the context in Jeremiah is Gods elect/chosen people that God uses for His purposes with those who believe Him and those who remain in unbelief.No one has said it is a crime. In fact, one of the journals that I write for requires the KJV as the primary text. However, I sometimes have to paraphrase and explain text because of the very issue I demonstrated. You would do well to move to a more modern version, such as the NRSV or ESV.
I do not think you understand what the term "elect" means. Israel is primarily God's elect through the patriarchs (Romans 11:28-29; "but as regards election they are beloved, for the sake of their ancestors; for the gifts and the calling of God are irrevocable" Also, 9:4-5). Gentiles are adopted and share in the promise when they believe. However, being God's elect does not imply they are saved. In fact, God's wrath came to them in exile because of their disobedience.
Imputation is a confusing topic. If you read Romans 4, righteousness is imputed ("considered" or "declared") through faith, not through election (4:24-25). So even if you were individually elected from before time (you were not, but hypothetically, let's explore this), that does not mean your sins were imputed to Christ. He clearly died for us, but the term "impute" (logizomai; to declare) is not used here because that would mean that Christ is declared a sinner, which he is not. Christ, the innocent one, gave himself for us. He did not become a sinner (Heb. 4:15).
Amen brother !So Christ becomes a sinner, right? You just said the guilt is transferred. Therefore, he is guilty of sin. Moreover, the person is still a sinner. Therefore, you are not saved from the power of sin. It is just a fiction. In fact, some consider this view a "legal fiction." I do not think God deals in fictions.
I also do not see much Scriptural support for your view. In fact, Paul says -
5 For those who live according to the flesh set their minds on the things of the flesh, but those who live according to the Spirit set their minds on the things of the Spirit. 6 To set the mind on the flesh is death, but to set the mind on the Spirit is life and peace. 7 For this reason the mind that is set on the flesh is hostile to God; it does not submit to God’s law—indeed it cannot, 8 and those who are in the flesh cannot please God. (Rom. 8:5-8).
If you are still a sinner, one enslaved to sin, then your mind is set on the flesh.
There you go misrepresenting what I said.So Christ becomes a sinner, right?
You just said (without Scriptural support) that sin was imputed to him. That means he was declared (logizomai) a sinner.There you go misrepresenting what I said.
You misrepresented what I saidYou just said (without Scriptural support) that sin was imputed to him. That means he was declared (logizomai) a sinner.
No as he explained what you said according to scripture that you misrepresented. He gave you the logical conclusion to your view.You misrepresented what I said