I will agree 100% the wrath/ anger inflicted on Jesus came from wicked men who tortured and put Him to death. But that was not the Father doing that to the Son.
By God not stepping in and stopping it, is He not giving His approval? It doesn't say in Isaiah that the Father simply crushed Him, but that it pleased Him. That can equate to ALLOWING the situation. And, understand, I still believe it is what was dropped on the human nature, not on God Himself, as God is still Spirit dwelling within the fleshly body of Christ. Two natures, flesh/spirit, human/deity. What is inflicted on the flesh, should that automatically be equated as also being on the spirit, on the Word? That which is inflected on the humanity/flesh, should that automatically be equated as being on the deity?
Due to all of these extras, is there any reason not to accept the possibility that Jesus faced God's wrath at the human level, due to God's inability to have anything to do with sin? At the level of the flesh? All those things done to Jesus were inflicted upon the body. Upon the flesh.
The Father and the Son did not need to stop it for He laid down His own life willingly.
He could have stopped His wrath... Jesus accepted the wrath willingly. How do we know that He knew? He sweat drops of blood in the Garden of Gethsemane. He knew what the Father had for Him, asked if the Father would let it pass, but, in full humility and surrender, followed the will of the Father.
And remember God was in Christ reconciling the world during His torture and death - atonement.
Another way to understand it is that God was behind Christ's crucifixion and by/through/in it was reconciling with the world. Jesus didn't die for us (I didn't say our sin), He died for God. He placated God, made atonement for us to God. That is the HIGH view. Jesus died for us that we might live, but when you look at it from as far as you can pull away, Jesus died for God, that God may reconcile with us.
Consider Isaiah 53. Also consider that many claim that the Septuagint is not perfect because the king who had it made brought in people who were not scholars, stuck them in rooms and had them translate the Jewish scripture into Greek, which some say goes against the law of God in the first place. (I don't know about all that, but it casts more doubt on the Septaugint then I already had. Such as, it is said that the Jews softened Isaiah 53 because it didn't match their view/belief of the Messiah.)
So given Isaiah 53, we see the dynamic that exists in what happened. Since we have this, and we have the crucifixion history in the gospels, something was happening. We may have difficulty understanding/accepting what that is, but we can know before God that something happened. We can also know that whatever that is, it doesn't violate God in any way, shape, or form. If we can't explain how, or why, then all we can do is accept that God knew what He was doing, and He would not violate Himself. Our translations of scripture mean nothing in light of what God KNOWS of scripture, given that He wrote it through inspiration. So if our understanding of scripture seems to violate God, then, obviously, our understanding is fundamentally flawed. Go with scripture. Our understanding is automatically fundamentally flawed = 10 simply because we are human. That number only goes down some when we replace our understanding with scripture. It only goes down a little because we are prone to interpret scripture through our fundamentally flawed understanding.