Why, light wont enter darkness as you have shown all along.
Who is the creator
- Thread starter Keiw1
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Symbolism about the rich man and Lazarus. Lazarus was looking down( from heaven the religions of darkness would teach)
The Hebrew word-Sheol-Is the Greek word Hades--Both translate the grave.
1Cor 1:10==Unity of thought= ALL of Gods truth-no division.
TibiasDad
Active Member
Light overcomes darkness every time! We just haven’t reach the end of the battle yet!
Doug
Then why are 99.9% minimum being mislead( Luke 17:26) to destruction, here at Rev 19:11? Yet the false religions on Earth are assuring billions they will be saved. That includes the false religions claiming to be Christian who tell about 2 billion they will be saved. Its easy to see the darkness, but usually not by those who are being mislead by it. It takes believing Jesus, most outright refuse. They WANT their ears tickled with-you are saved.
charismaticlady
Active Member
Being free of sin is having no desire to sin, ever. We need to be indwelt with the Spirit of God to not ever commit a sin unto death. You are actually acknowledging that children have a sin nature because they WILL sin. "All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God." You have a theory that is not scriptural. But there have been people who believed what you do, 1 John 1:10, but they are lying to themselves that they have never sinned. Satan is real. They still need Jesus to cleanse them of the desire to sin. Adam's sin caused all of us to inherit death. And it is the wages of sin that is that death. Jesus came to take away that sin and is why Jesus said, we MUST be born again. Why, if the first birth was sin free?
Paul speaks of children of pagans; that if one parent is saved, the children are sanctified. Otherwise, they are not. 1 Corinthians 7: 13 And a woman who has a husband who does not believe, if he is willing to live with her, let her not divorce him. 14 For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband; otherwise your children would be unclean, but now they are holy.
Why do you think God commanded the children of Israel to kill everyone is some nations, even the children and animals?
12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men, because all sinned— 13 (For until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. 14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.
It seems you expect to sin in the present and in the future. And that when you do, grace will cover your sin. Sorry, but you have a misinterpretation of grace. What is your definition of God's grace, because it is dead wrong!
"My little children, these things I write to you, so that you may not sin."
"Whoever has been born of God does not sin, for His seed remains in him; and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God."
Actually, the Catholic Church retained their doctrine from the apostles. It was the Protestant Reformation that changed the apostles teaching sending many to hell. What you don't realize
26 For if we sin willfully after we have received the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, 27 but a certain fearful expectation of judgment, and fiery indignation which will devour the adversaries. 28 Anyone who has rejected Moses’ law dies without mercy on the testimony of two or three witnesses. 29 Of how much worse punishment, do you suppose, will he be thought worthy who has trampled the Son of God underfoot, counted the blood of the covenant by which he was sanctified a common thing, and insulted the Spirit of grace? 30 For we know Him who said, “Vengeance is Mine, I will repay,” says the Lord. And again, “The Lord will judge His people.” 31 It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of the living God.
Right. This chapter is only about sins unto death, not immature fruit of the Spirit. The sin that results in death are willful breaking of the commandments of God. They are called sins unto death, 1 John 5:16-17. And Numbers 15:30-36. This is how we know that Romans 6 and 1 John 3 are about sins unto death. It is 1 John 1:7 that cleanses us of sins NOT unto death as long as we are walking in the Spirit/Light.
It is John's epistle that tells us of those two types of sins. The whole thing, not just one verse. Context, Context, Context! You can't stop reading at 1 John 1:9. The whole epistle is about those two types of sin. It was the Reformation that coined the doctrine that "sin is sin" making Christians ignorant of how God sees sin. It would be a shame if you cannot be teachable.
charismaticlady
Active Member
I doubt anyone at the time saw the prophetic aspect of this revelation. Note the name of the book. It is only looking back from end times that we can recognize that the types of churches are church ages in history, because they are in order.
TibiasDad
Active Member
We aren’t, it’s the 1% who are being misled. Statistically speaking, 99% of anything generally indicates that there is a significant reason why so many conclude as they do! In this case, it is an academic standard that eliminates personal preference, and locks in an irrefutable meaning that cannot be rationally altered.
I don’t assure anyone of their salvation; only God can do that, and he says that whoever believes that he is the Christ will be saved!
Your religion has many more necessities in order to be “saved” (which in your view only 144,000 are really saved) or live in paradise on Earth. (Do you think you’ve done enough?)
Doug
Of course not. But You came to faith as a sinner. After being saved a sin does not end your faith.
I think you mean sarx. And that it is the word for sin nature in that context is purely your own interpretation. And does indeed refer to physical flesh. To understand Romans 8, we really need to back up to chapter 7 beginning in verse 14 which begins Paul's argument for the victory over sin through God's grace. It does that by first laying out the struggle against sin that the Christian continues to have even after having been saved. In verses 21-25 He lays out the source of that struggle. He says that it lies in the conflict between the redeemed spirit and the as yet unredeemed body.
It is the old story of the body wants what the body wants. John describes that in 1 John 2:16 as "all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh and the lust of the eyes and the boastful pride of life, is not from the Father, but is from the world".
So yes, the struggle has to do with the physical flesh. You can call that sin nature if you so choose, but the bible never calls it that. The closet it comes to that is in saying that is in 8:3 saying that God sent His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh. But I do not think that equates to a sin nature, since I do not hold that Jesus had a sin nature even if Jesus came in a body of sinful flesh.
He then proceeds in chapter 8 to describe the victory over sin that comes through the Holy Spirit And closes that chapter giving the assurance, in spite of the continued struggle in this life, of the final and total victory over our life in this world, which is the essence of of the argument for the all-sufficiency of grace that gives us the victory over sin.
I would be very careful with that. That is a bit like the speeder who being caught by the policeman declares, "I didn't realize I was going that fast".
TibiasDad
Active Member
My apologies to Sara; I didn’t catch the autocorrection.
If you want to be that naive then you do so to your own detriment.
From Biblehub.com
3For what the law was powerless to do because it was weakened by the flesh, <a href="https://biblehub.com/niv/romans/8.htm#footnotes" title="In contexts like this, the Greek word for flesh (sarx) refers to the sinful state of human beings, often presented as a power in opposition to the Spirit; also in verses 4-13.">b</a> God did by sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh to be a sin offering.
That is the footnote definition for sarx at Rom 8:3, and just for clarification, I had absolutely nothing to do with this definition, so it is not just my interpretation, but that of scholars far above my pay grade!
The lexical definition, according to Bill Mounce, is
flesh, body, the soft tissue of a creature, often in contrast to bone, ligament, or sinew; by extension human, humankind, with a focus on the fallen human nature, which is frail and corrupt in contrast to immaterial (spiritual) things, thus the NIV (1984) translation sinful nature.
Bauer, Arndt and Gingrich agree that “sin” controls the flesh and flesh is subject to it “so that wherever flesh is, all forms of sin are likewise”.
Even Google defines it as
Sarx
(σάρξ) is the Greek word for "flesh," primarily used in the New Testament to describe human physical existence, frailty, or, especially in Pauline theology, a sinful, fallen nature opposed to God.
So it is not “my interpretation”, but rather the interpretation of general consensus by leaders in biblical Greek.
Doug
TibiasDad
Active Member
Romans 7 is not about the Christian experience, but Paul’s realization that he is a slave to sin by means of the law.
21So I find this law at work: Although I want to do good, evil is right there with me. 22For in my inner being I delight in God’s law; 23but I see another law at work in me, waging war against the law of my mind and making me a prisoner of the law of sin at work within me.
Paul said that he “was alive once” without the law, but that when he learned the law, “sin revived and I died”.
Doug
The children would have been taught to be wicked. Handed to them by their own parents. False god worship, etc. They were wicked, the ones God had eliminated. He saved those children from living wicked lives.
ALL sin. But some choose willfully to practice-false god worship-and one of these or more-1Cor 6:9-11, Gal 5:19-21( Paul mentions spiritism at Gal) the Greek word = pharmacia, thus drug addiction is apart of that. Thus when one looks at this world=99.9% minimum practice 1 of those daily. Probably how Jesus knew almost 2000 years ago that in these last days( Luke 17:26--would be the same as it was in Noah's day-99.9% minimum mislead to destruction as is now as well. 99% of all religion on Earth is false religion. Including 99% of those claiming to be Christian religions.
144,000( numbered) are bought from the Earth to heaven( Rev 14:3)= the little flock( Luke 10:32)= the anointed bride of Christ-these will sit on thrones by Jesus' side( Rev 1:6--Rev 20:6)
The great crowd( Rev 7:9) no man can number, are the other sheep( John 10:16) who are not of that fold-these get these promises=Matt 5:5--Psalm 37:9,11,29--(Prov 2:21-22 assures they will not leave the Earth.
Thus you are mistaken on what we believe.
I suppose you believe the new Earth is a new planet= error.
charismaticlady
Active Member
Those particular nations were Nephilim. Like Goliath.
The Nephilim were destroyed in the flood. God stopped the fallen angels appearing as mortal and taking wives creating the Nephilim, otherwise it was a waste of time for God to destroy them in the flood. Goliath was just huge. 99.9% on Earth were wicked in Gods view. In that account it says their thoughts were wicked all the time, very violent.
charismaticlady
Active Member
Read it again, K. It says "and afterwards." That shows me that not all of the total third of the angels fell at the same time. What's interesting is that Paul talks about a woman should cover her hair "on account of the angels."
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