Who is the creator

Actually some of the AI answers I have gotten lately have been REALLY GOOD!
(y)

What I like the best is if they happen to say something I dont understand they are happy to reexplain to me...

I had to do that once.

I gotta say they sure do beat Bixby. Bixby is androids andswer to Siri and truly is just plain dumb IMO
 
not in flesh bone and blood.... T you should have known this. understand in flesh and blood did he CREATE the universe? no, but in flesh and blood he did die for our sins.

flesh and blood did not create anything........ remember, Matthews 19:4. .... God is a "HE" and not a them.

101G.
And John says that the Word, the pre-incarnate Christ, “made (created) all that has been made.” That is a “HE” not a them, and yet we know that “the Spirit of God was hovering over” the waters infusing life into the creation “the Word” was creating. So there is a “them” element to the narrative too.

“The Word became flesh and dwelt among us”, the flesh died, not the Word that inhabited the flesh. I did not say that flesh and blood created, so set that straw man ablaze and let the winds of truth scatter it into non-existence! Without it, your arguments are meaningless!

Doug
 
2Cor 4:4 ἐν οἷς ὁ θεὸς τοῦ αἰῶνος τούτου ἐτύφλωσεν τὰ νοήματα τῶν ἀπίστων εἰς τὸ μὴ αὐγάσαι τὸν φωτισμὸν τοῦ εὐαγγελίου τῆς δόξης τοῦ Χριστοῦ, ὅς ἐστιν εἰκὼν τοῦ Θεοῦ.
‘In whom the god (ὁ θεὸς) of this age” is the first instance of ho Theos, and it is applied to Satan. This is the Nominative Case, indicating the subject of the sentence.

τῆς δόξης τοῦ Χριστοῦ, ὅς ἐστιν εἰκὼν τοῦ Θεοῦ (of the God), is the second usage which is the Genitive Case, which indicates God possessing something, namely a particular image or set of particular characteristics. Paul states that Christ literally “is the image of the God”! In other words, whatever the characteristics of God the Father are, they are duplicated and demonstrated by and in Christ the Son.

So ὁ θεὸς is not technically used exclusively of God, and it is said that the image of the God (εἰκὼν τοῦ Θεοῦ), is portrayed perfectly by and in the person of Christ. τοῦ Θεοῦ and ὁ θεὸς are the same God! Only the grammatical position in the sentence is different! The first is Genitive and the second is Nominative.

And these are not the only two places that ὁ θεὸς occurs:

Matt 22:32‘I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob’ ? He is not the God of the dead but of the living.”

John 20:28Thomas said to him, “My Lord and my God!” (literally “the Lord of me and the God of me”. ὁ θεὸς appears in both passages. In fact, you will find ὁ θεὸς, roughly 261 times in the NT.


Doug
Yes when God is spoken of alone=Theos--When another is called god in the passage, God is called Ho Theos.
 
There are multipl upon multiple online sources from text studies to Strongs (Guess you dont trust him cause he 9is a Trin?) to I bet all the tea in China that there are also Uni and JW sources of translations that you can do a simple search as to what does yada, yada.... (sorry @Jaime it just comes natural to me) ... mean and you can draw ytyour own conclusions.

While searching look at the Ais who invest no skin in these conversations...

ChatGPT

Grok

Gemini

Search Assist

to start with

And be sure to not mis the OT searches for words as they have not mislead anyone
ALL using translations( with Gods name removed are being mislead.
 
And John says that the Word, the pre-incarnate Christ, “made (created) all that has been made.” That is a “HE” not a them, and yet we know that “the Spirit of God was hovering over” the waters infusing life into the creation “the Word” was creating. So there is a “them” element to the narrative too.

“The Word became flesh and dwelt among us”, the flesh died, not the Word that inhabited the flesh. I did not say that flesh and blood created, so set that straw man ablaze and let the winds of truth scatter it into non-existence! Without it, your arguments are meaningless!

Doug
GINOLJC, to all.
the PRE, PRE, PRE...incarnate Christ is Spirit, (the LORD), not flesh bone and blood, (in the beginning at Genesis 1:1) NO, but Spirit that created all things. let's see this by scripture.

Isaiah 44:24 "Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;"

TibiasDad, understand that it was the "LORD", the (Spirit), God, "one" person who .... maketh all things. the "LORD" here in Isaiah 44:24 is the "Word", (the PRE...incarnate Christ)in John 1:1-3, before he came in flesh and blood. for the "Word", the PRE...incarnate Christ, the ...... "LORD", ... is the Spirit who MADE ALL THINGS. supportive scripture. John 1:3 "All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made."

How do 101G know that the "LORD" and the PRE...incarnate Christ is the same "ONE" person? because of the term "ALONE" in Isaiah 44:24 makes it clear. and that term "ALONE" means, "having no one else present" meaning he didn't go through anyone else.

you may ask, "but what about Colossians 1:16 "For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:" is this not ... ANOTHER PERSON? NO,

just as "by" is used here .... as well as in Isaiah 44:24. let's see what "by" means clearly with understanding. using the Noah Webster's 1828 Dictionary of American English the term "BY" means....... when.using the third definition, we get our answer,
BY, prep.
1. Near; close; as, sit by me; that house stands by a river.
[L. pressus.]
2. Near, in motion; as, to move, go or pass by a church. But it seems, in other phrases,or with a verb in the past time, to signify past, gone beyond. "The procession is gone by;" "the hour is gone by;" "John went by." We now use past as an equivalent word. The procession is gone past. Gone by is in strictness tautology, as now used; but I apprehend by signifies primarily near.
3. Through, or with, denoting the agent, means, instrument or cause; as, "a city is destroyed by fire;" "profit is made by commerce;" "to take by force." This use answers to that of the Latin per, through, denoting a passing, acting, agency, or instrumentality.

so, definition #3 not only answer the "by" misunderstanding but also answer the misunderstanding of " Through" as some other translation use. for example,

The New Living Translation
Colossians 1:16 "for through him God created everything in the heavenly realms and on earth. He made the things we can see and the things we can’t see— such as thrones, kingdoms, rulers, and authorities in the unseen world. Everything was created through him and for him".

So, it's the same one person who created "ALL THINGS". as said by the Noah Webster's 1828 Dictionary of American English the term "BY" means... using the third definition..... denoting the agent, means, instrument or cause. well the agent, the means, the instrument, or cause that God the "LORD", the PRE...incarnate Christ, the Spirit used in "CREATING and MAKING ALL THINGS" was .......... "SPEECH". God spoke all things into existence. just go back to Genesis 1, "and God said", over and over.

so, what is "Speech?" the expression of or the ability to express thoughts and feelings by articulate. The term "articulate" refers to having or showing the ability to speak fluently and coherently. It implies that a person can express their ideas clearly and effectively. let's see this "EXPRESSION" in scripture, Hebrews 1:1 "God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets," Hebrews 1:2 "Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;" Hebrews 1:3 "Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;"

the "EXPRESS" ...... image of, of, of, God? yes God made it clear who he was .... that made all thing, (the CREATOR) ... in his own PERSON, which is his image.... the Christ who was to come.... God almighty "diversified" in flesh bone and blood. his OWN IMAGE, as a man.

this is too easy not to understand.

please note..... all of 101G finding can be reproduce.

PICJAG, 101G.
 
ALL using translations( with Gods name removed are being mislead.
Where is that written and what definitive proof do you have?

As I understand you you are assuming “If God’s name does not appear as YHWH / Jehovah in the English text, then the translation is corrupt or misleading.”

You do know hat assumption is not biblical and not historical.

That claim assumes God requires His name to appear in a specific English form in order for Scripture to be valid. Scripture itself never teaches that.

You surely know this that No extant Greek manuscript of the New Testament contains the Tetragrammaton (YHWH). None.

Not one. Yet, Jesus and the apostles and the early church quoted the Old Testament using “Kyrios” (Lord), not YHWH.

If using translations “without God’s name” misleads people, then Jesus and the apostles themselves misled people—because every New Testament quotation uses Kyrios (“Lord”), not the Tetragrammaton.

They cannot escape this without accusing Jesus and the apostles of participating in corruption.

FACT....
The New World Translation adds the name “Jehovah” 237 times into the New Testament, even though No Greek manuscript contains it and No early Christian writer quotes it there and No textual evidence supports it

That is not “restoring” God’s name. That is inserting a word where it never existed.

Ironically, the only Bible that actually changes the text is the NWT, which inserts “Jehovah” into the New Testament without manuscript support. Other translations are simply translating what the text actually says.


IN TRUTH...

The Old Testament contains YHWH in Hebrew — all serious translations acknowledge this and
The New Testament was written in Greek and consistently uses Kyrios and Theos.


God’s name was not “removed” from the New Testament .....
it was never there to begin with. That’s a historical fact, not a doctrinal opinion.
Romans 10:13 for “WHOEVER WILL CALL ON THE NAME OF THE LORD WILL BE SAVED.”

Here Paul is quoting Joel 2:32 “And it will come about that whoever calls on the name of the LORD Will be delivered; For on Mount Zion and in Jerusalem There will be those who escape, As the LORD has said, Even among the survivors whom the LORD calls.

Now dont go all hyper on me....

English Bibles say "LORD" in Joel Why?

In Joel 2:32, the Hebrew text absolutely contains YHWH (יהוה).
However, almost all English translations follow a long-standing Jewish and Christian convention:

YHWH is rendered as LORD as this practice predates Christianity
and Jesus and the apostles followed this same convention when quoting Scripture in Greek

So when you see “Everyone who calls on the LORD shall be saved”

That is YHWH — just not transliterated as “Yahweh” or “Jehovah.”

“LORD” (in all caps) is not a title; it is a reverent substitution for the divine name YHWH.

Paul is quoting Joel 2:32, where the Hebrew says YHWH—yet Paul applies it directly to Jesus.

Paul had no problem applying passages about YHWH to Jesus without using the Tetragrammaton. That tells us God’s “name” is about identity and authority, not pronunciation.
If you argue that God’s name was removed and must be restored as “Jehovah” there is a problem

The Hebrew text still has YHWH

The Greek Septuagint uses Kyrios

The New Testament uses Kyrios

English translations follow the same pattern


And Nothing was removed. The same divine name is being represented consistently across languages.

Why Romans 10:13 still matters

Paul quotes Joel 2:32 and applies it to Jesus.


Joel: calls on YHWH to be saved

Paul: calls on the Lord to be saved

Context of Romans 10 tells us that “Jesus is Lord” and Salvation is tied to confessing Jesus

So Paul does not restore the name “Jehovah”, nor does not transliterate YHWH but does apply YHWH’s saving name directly to Christ

We can condense some of the above with.....

Fact...The claim that all Bible translations “without God’s name” mislead people isn’t biblical or historical.

Fact...No Greek manuscript of the New Testament contains the Tetragrammaton—yet Jesus and the apostles quoted Scripture using Kyrios (“Lord”). If that misleads people, then the apostles themselves did.

Fact...Ironically, the only translation that alters the text is the NWT, which inserts “Jehovah” into the New Testament 237 times without manuscript evidence. Other translations simply translate what the text actually says.

God’s name was never removed from the New Testament ; it was never there. And Scripture itself shows that God’s “name” refers to His identity and authority, not a required pronunciation (Rom 10:13; Phil 2:9–11).
 
GINOLJC, to all.
the PRE, PRE, PRE...incarnate Christ is Spirit, (the LORD), not flesh bone and blood, (in the beginning at Genesis 1:1) NO, but Spirit that created all things.
Where have I ever denied this? I haven’t, thus all the copious drivel that follows the statement above is meaningless!

Doug
 
Where have I ever denied this? I haven’t, thus all the copious drivel that follows the statement above is meaningless!

Doug
Right here,
And John says that the Word, the pre-incarnate Christ, “made (created) all that has been made.”
the Word is not the PRE-INCARNATE Christ, nor PRE ..... NOTHING or ANYTHING. The Word in John 1:1 is the Son of MAN ....... who made ALL THINGS, (John 1:1 & 3) who is called Christ ... THE SON OF GOD.

please understand and know the difference between the "Son of Man" and the "Son of God". for the Son of God did not come from Heaven.... (smile). but came out of the woman Mary.

The Son Man came from Heaven and returned to heaven because he is from heaven

this is why 101G clearly make this statement.... "The Lord Jesus MADE ALL THINGS, but the Lord Jesus ... THE CHRIST, made Nothing"

101G suggest you notice what was bold........ take care./

101G.

P.S. 101G suggest you study Philippians 2:6 and, and 2:7 carefully. have a blessed day.
 
Where is that written and what definitive proof do you have?

As I understand you you are assuming “If God’s name does not appear as YHWH / Jehovah in the English text, then the translation is corrupt or misleading.”

You do know hat assumption is not biblical and not historical.

That claim assumes God requires His name to appear in a specific English form in order for Scripture to be valid. Scripture itself never teaches that.

You surely know this that No extant Greek manuscript of the New Testament contains the Tetragrammaton (YHWH). None.

Not one. Yet, Jesus and the apostles and the early church quoted the Old Testament using “Kyrios” (Lord), not YHWH.

If using translations “without God’s name” misleads people, then Jesus and the apostles themselves misled people—because every New Testament quotation uses Kyrios (“Lord”), not the Tetragrammaton.

They cannot escape this without accusing Jesus and the apostles of participating in corruption.

FACT....
The New World Translation adds the name “Jehovah” 237 times into the New Testament, even though No Greek manuscript contains it and No early Christian writer quotes it there and No textual evidence supports it

That is not “restoring” God’s name. That is inserting a word where it never existed.

Ironically, the only Bible that actually changes the text is the NWT, which inserts “Jehovah” into the New Testament without manuscript support. Other translations are simply translating what the text actually says.


IN TRUTH...

The Old Testament contains YHWH in Hebrew — all serious translations acknowledge this and
The New Testament was written in Greek and consistently uses Kyrios and Theos.


God’s name was not “removed” from the New Testament .....
it was never there to begin with. That’s a historical fact, not a doctrinal opinion.
Romans 10:13 for “WHOEVER WILL CALL ON THE NAME OF THE LORD WILL BE SAVED.”

Here Paul is quoting Joel 2:32 “And it will come about that whoever calls on the name of the LORD Will be delivered; For on Mount Zion and in Jerusalem There will be those who escape, As the LORD has said, Even among the survivors whom the LORD calls.

Now dont go all hyper on me....

English Bibles say "LORD" in Joel Why?

In Joel 2:32, the Hebrew text absolutely contains YHWH (יהוה).
However, almost all English translations follow a long-standing Jewish and Christian convention:

YHWH is rendered as LORD as this practice predates Christianity
and Jesus and the apostles followed this same convention when quoting Scripture in Greek

So when you see “Everyone who calls on the LORD shall be saved”

That is YHWH — just not transliterated as “Yahweh” or “Jehovah.”

“LORD” (in all caps) is not a title; it is a reverent substitution for the divine name YHWH.

Paul is quoting Joel 2:32, where the Hebrew says YHWH—yet Paul applies it directly to Jesus.

Paul had no problem applying passages about YHWH to Jesus without using the Tetragrammaton. That tells us God’s “name” is about identity and authority, not pronunciation.
If you argue that God’s name was removed and must be restored as “Jehovah” there is a problem

The Hebrew text still has YHWH

The Greek Septuagint uses Kyrios

The New Testament uses Kyrios

English translations follow the same pattern


And Nothing was removed. The same divine name is being represented consistently across languages.

Why Romans 10:13 still matters

Paul quotes Joel 2:32 and applies it to Jesus.


Joel: calls on YHWH to be saved

Paul: calls on the Lord to be saved

Context of Romans 10 tells us that “Jesus is Lord” and Salvation is tied to confessing Jesus

So Paul does not restore the name “Jehovah”, nor does not transliterate YHWH but does apply YHWH’s saving name directly to Christ

We can condense some of the above with.....

Fact...The claim that all Bible translations “without God’s name” mislead people isn’t biblical or historical.

Fact...No Greek manuscript of the New Testament contains the Tetragrammaton—yet Jesus and the apostles quoted Scripture using Kyrios (“Lord”). If that misleads people, then the apostles themselves did.

Fact...Ironically, the only translation that alters the text is the NWT, which inserts “Jehovah” into the New Testament 237 times without manuscript evidence. Other translations simply translate what the text actually says.

God’s name was never removed from the New Testament ; it was never there. And Scripture itself shows that God’s “name” refers to His identity and authority, not a required pronunciation (Rom 10:13; Phil 2:9–11).
Gods name was there in NT. Jerome even told the leader in the 4th century the name belonged in NT. But it wasn't allowed.

Scriptures by the institute for scriptural research.
The Exegesis by Herb Jahn
New Englishman's Hebrew concordance by George V. Wigram.
The source's that --The Divine name KJV( 2015) used.
God revealed it through The New world translation first.
 
is the Word in John 1:1 the same one person who made all things? yes or no

101G
In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by means of him (the Word) and without him (the Word) nothing was made that has been made. (John 1:1-3)


Doug
 
In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by means of him (the Word) and without him (the Word) nothing was made that has been made. (John 1:1-3)


Doug
yes, the same "one" person
And John says that the Word, the pre-incarnate Christ, “made (created) all that has been made.” That is a “HE” not a them, and yet we know that “the Spirit of God was hovering over” the waters infusing life into the creation “the Word” was creating. So there is a “them” element to the narrative too.

“The Word became flesh and dwelt among us”, the flesh died, not the Word that inhabited the flesh. I did not say that flesh and blood created, so set that straw man ablaze and let the winds of truth scatter it into non-existence! Without it, your arguments are meaningless!
that's 101G point ........ there is no them.

101G
 
Gods name was there in NT. Jerome even told the leader in the 4th century the name belonged in NT. But it wasn't allowed.
I have no idea where you get your information but it is apparent that history is not your bailiwick.

When you are going to use a reference you need to post not only the link you use, as I have done below but copy and paste it directly...OR DONT USE IT.

I asked for where and the links... you provided some info and they all are on my side of things with reasonable explanations. If the NWT translators had the proper language knowledge they would not have added to that bible and many of the info below explains why.

Here is the truth on Jerome...........................................................................................................................................

The RCC... again.... ?????????????????????/

Wikipedia say about Jerome..."Jerome did not specifically advocate for the inclusion of God's name in the New Testament; rather, he focused on translating the Bible into Latin and providing commentaries. His work primarily involved the Vulgate translation, which did not emphasize the use of God's name as it appeared in the Hebrew texts.

The following from Tyndale House (Tyndale House is named after William Tyndale, who was a pioneering translator of the Bible into English, and the Tyndale Bible refers to his translations of various biblical texts.)

Jerome's Views on God's Name​

Context of Jerome's Teachings​

Jerome, a prominent Christian priest and theologian in the 4th century, is best known for his translation of the Bible into Latin, known as the Vulgate. His work aimed to provide a more accurate representation of the Scriptures, including the Old Testament, which he translated from Hebrew rather than the Greek Septuagint.

God's Name in the New Testament​

Jerome did not specifically advocate for the inclusion of God's name in the New Testament texts. His focus was primarily on translating and interpreting the Scriptures, rather than altering the established texts of the New Testament. The New Testament, as recognized by early Christians, did not include the explicit name of God in the same way as the Old Testament.

Historical Prohibition​

During Jerome's time, there was a growing tradition among Jewish communities to avoid pronouncing God's name, which was considered sacred. This practice influenced early Christian writings, leading to a general absence of the name in the New Testament. Jerome's writings reflect the theological and cultural context of his era, where the emphasis was on the reverence of God's name rather than its vocalization.

In summary, while Jerome contributed significantly to biblical translation and interpretation, he did not assert that God's name should be explicitly included in the New Testament. The absence of God's name in these texts aligns with the broader historical practices of the time.

Scriptures by the institute for scriptural research.

Institute for Scriptural Research

  • The only names of the Father YHWH / יהוה, and the Son יהושׁע are restored in Hebrew type.
Of course.... Hebrew is not the language of the NT. If you dont want Koine Greek, you can try Latin or Aramaic)

  • The names of gentile deities that defile the English language have been eliminated as far as possible.
The Exegesis by Herb Jahn
The Exegesis Bible by Herb Jahn uses titles like "Lord" instead of God's name, likely to follow the tradition established by the Septuagint, which substituted "Lord" for the divine name to avoid confusion and maintain familiarity among readers. This approach reflects a long-standing practice in biblical translations rather than an oversight

Background on the Exegesis Bible​

The Exegesis Ready Research Bible, created by Herb Jahn, is based on the King James Version and aims to provide a unique interpretation of Scripture. It incorporates a literal translation and transliteration of biblical texts, focusing on clarity and comprehension.

Reasons for Omitting God's Name​

  1. Tradition of Substitution: The New Testament authors often used the term "Lord" (Greek: kurios) instead of God's name (YHWH). This practice likely stems from the Septuagint, which replaced the divine name with "Lord" to avoid mispronunciation and maintain reverence.
  2. Sacred Name Movement: The Exegesis Bible aligns with the sacred name movement, which emphasizes using specific names for God. However, Jahn's approach may not consistently restore the Tetragrammaton (YHWH) throughout the text, focusing instead on titles like "Adonay" or "Messiah."
  3. Interpretative Choices: Jahn's translation choices reflect a desire to provide a fresh perspective on biblical texts. This may lead to the omission of God's name in favor of terms that he believes convey the intended meaning more effectively.

Conclusion​

The absence of God's name in the Exegesis Bible is influenced by historical traditions, interpretative choices, and the specific goals of the translation. This approach aims to enhance understanding while adhering to certain theological perspectives.
New Englishman's Hebrew concordance by George V. Wigram.
The New Englishman's Hebrew Concordance by George V. Wigram is a reference book that helps readers locate Hebrew words in the Bible using Strong's numbering system, making it useful for those studying the original texts without knowing Hebrew. It includes complete Hebrew and English indexes for easy navigation.

You will not get much information from this reference on Greek, Aramaic, or Latin Names in the New Testament.... Hebrew is OLD

The source's that --The Divine name KJV( 2015) used.
The Divine Name features the Old and New Testaments in the King James Version translation. The uniqueness of this Bible comes from the fact that every instance - over 7,000 instances - of God's name, in both the Old and New Testaments, is replaced by Jehovah.
This is not proof of correctness... I do hope they switched Easter to Passover in this KJV.


God revealed it through The New world translation first.
It was translated to the NWT by a group of men who had only one who knew only 2 years of college Greek and none knew any Hebrew.

The New World Translation (NWT) was produced by the New World Bible Translation Committee, which included Nathan H. Knorr, Frederick W. Franz, Albert D. Schroeder, George D. Gangas, and Milton G. Henschel. Frederick Franz is noted as the principal translator, but he had limited formal training in biblical languages.

New World Translation Translators

The New World Translation (NWT) of the Bible was produced by the New World Bible Translation Committee, which was formed in 1947. The identities of the translators were not initially disclosed by the Watch Tower Society, but several individuals have been identified over time.

Key Members of the Translation Committee

Frederick W. FranzPrincipal TranslatorLimited formal training in Greek; self-taught in Hebrew
Nathan H. KnorrPresident of the Watch Tower SocietyNo formal qualifications in biblical languages
Albert D. SchroederCommittee MemberNo formal qualifications in biblical languages
George D. GangasCommittee MemberNo formal qualifications in biblical languages
Milton G. HenschelCommittee MemberNo formal qualifications in biblical languages
[th]
Name​
[/th][th]
Role/Position​
[/th][th]
Qualifications/Background​
[/th]​

Qualifications and Criticism

  • Frederick W. Franz is noted as the only member with any significant knowledge of biblical languages, having studied Greek for two years and being self-taught in Hebrew.
  • The other members had little to no formal training in biblical languages, which has led to criticism regarding the accuracy and reliability of the translation.
  • Critics argue that the translation reflects the doctrinal biases of the Jehovah's Witnesses, particularly in key theological areas.
The NWT has been both praised for its unique features and criticized for its perceived biases and the qualifications of its translators.

And you are going to trust what you have been told on a bible that was translated with virtually no knowledge in the languages they were translating... Only one man Frederick Franz had any right to open his mout and at that it was limited because as you well know you can open a Strong's concordance but not every word translates the same in every situation.

What a perfect opportunity to change 2 or 3 words and change a meaning that people have relied upon for a couple thousand years or so. change from was God to was A god.

You must use every possible translation possible to understand.

Every single one of King James translators was well suited for their task... all 47 of them.

The 1611 King James Bible was translated by about 47 known scholars, divided into six companies. These translators included experts in Hebrew and Greek, with backgrounds in theology and various academic disciplines, ensuring a high level of scholarly rigor in the translation process.
some references for you to use.

those in the NWT comitee to translate basically had to look to one man who was not well equipped in his
translation and they would of... and perhaps did... put a thumbs up on Frederick Franz's biases.

Every single source you provided except the last confirms that God's name was never used in the NT. That came zout by the NWT and now with pothers bastardizing ones like the KJV that was never that way until recently.


Here are some actual links for you. Dont lose them

Exegesis Ready Research Bible by Herb Jahn



Divine Name-KJV, Paper
 
I have no idea where you get your information but it is apparent that history is not your bailiwick.

When you are going to use a reference you need to post not only the link you use, as I have done below but copy and paste it directly...OR DONT USE IT.

I asked for where and the links... you provided some info and they all are on my side of things with reasonable explanations. If the NWT translators had the proper language knowledge they would not have added to that bible and many of the info below explains why.

Here is the truth on Jerome...........................................................................................................................................

The RCC... again.... ?????????????????????/

Wikipedia say about Jerome..."Jerome did not specifically advocate for the inclusion of God's name in the New Testament; rather, he focused on translating the Bible into Latin and providing commentaries. His work primarily involved the Vulgate translation, which did not emphasize the use of God's name as it appeared in the Hebrew texts.

The following from Tyndale House (Tyndale House is named after William Tyndale, who was a pioneering translator of the Bible into English, and the Tyndale Bible refers to his translations of various biblical texts.)

Jerome's Views on God's Name​

Context of Jerome's Teachings​

Jerome, a prominent Christian priest and theologian in the 4th century, is best known for his translation of the Bible into Latin, known as the Vulgate. His work aimed to provide a more accurate representation of the Scriptures, including the Old Testament, which he translated from Hebrew rather than the Greek Septuagint.

God's Name in the New Testament​

Jerome did not specifically advocate for the inclusion of God's name in the New Testament texts. His focus was primarily on translating and interpreting the Scriptures, rather than altering the established texts of the New Testament. The New Testament, as recognized by early Christians, did not include the explicit name of God in the same way as the Old Testament.

Historical Prohibition​

During Jerome's time, there was a growing tradition among Jewish communities to avoid pronouncing God's name, which was considered sacred. This practice influenced early Christian writings, leading to a general absence of the name in the New Testament. Jerome's writings reflect the theological and cultural context of his era, where the emphasis was on the reverence of God's name rather than its vocalization.

In summary, while Jerome contributed significantly to biblical translation and interpretation, he did not assert that God's name should be explicitly included in the New Testament. The absence of God's name in these texts aligns with the broader historical practices of the time.



Institute for Scriptural Research

  • The only names of the Father YHWH / יהוה, and the Son יהושׁע are restored in Hebrew type.
Of course.... Hebrew is not the language of the NT. If you dont want Koine Greek, you can try Latin or Aramaic)

  • The names of gentile deities that defile the English language have been eliminated as far as possible.

The Exegesis Bible by Herb Jahn uses titles like "Lord" instead of God's name, likely to follow the tradition established by the Septuagint, which substituted "Lord" for the divine name to avoid confusion and maintain familiarity among readers. This approach reflects a long-standing practice in biblical translations rather than an oversight

Background on the Exegesis Bible​

The Exegesis Ready Research Bible, created by Herb Jahn, is based on the King James Version and aims to provide a unique interpretation of Scripture. It incorporates a literal translation and transliteration of biblical texts, focusing on clarity and comprehension.

Reasons for Omitting God's Name​

  1. Tradition of Substitution: The New Testament authors often used the term "Lord" (Greek: kurios) instead of God's name (YHWH). This practice likely stems from the Septuagint, which replaced the divine name with "Lord" to avoid mispronunciation and maintain reverence.
  2. Sacred Name Movement: The Exegesis Bible aligns with the sacred name movement, which emphasizes using specific names for God. However, Jahn's approach may not consistently restore the Tetragrammaton (YHWH) throughout the text, focusing instead on titles like "Adonay" or "Messiah."
  3. Interpretative Choices: Jahn's translation choices reflect a desire to provide a fresh perspective on biblical texts. This may lead to the omission of God's name in favor of terms that he believes convey the intended meaning more effectively.

Conclusion​

The absence of God's name in the Exegesis Bible is influenced by historical traditions, interpretative choices, and the specific goals of the translation. This approach aims to enhance understanding while adhering to certain theological perspectives.

The New Englishman's Hebrew Concordance by George V. Wigram is a reference book that helps readers locate Hebrew words in the Bible using Strong's numbering system, making it useful for those studying the original texts without knowing Hebrew. It includes complete Hebrew and English indexes for easy navigation.

You will not get much information from this reference on Greek, Aramaic, or Latin Names in the New Testament.... Hebrew is OLD


The Divine Name features the Old and New Testaments in the King James Version translation. The uniqueness of this Bible comes from the fact that every instance - over 7,000 instances - of God's name, in both the Old and New Testaments, is replaced by Jehovah.
This is not proof of correctness... I do hope they switched Easter to Passover in this KJV.



It was translated to the NWT by a group of men who had only one who knew only 2 years of college Greek and none knew any Hebrew.

The New World Translation (NWT) was produced by the New World Bible Translation Committee, which included Nathan H. Knorr, Frederick W. Franz, Albert D. Schroeder, George D. Gangas, and Milton G. Henschel. Frederick Franz is noted as the principal translator, but he had limited formal training in biblical languages.

New World Translation Translators

The New World Translation (NWT) of the Bible was produced by the New World Bible Translation Committee, which was formed in 1947. The identities of the translators were not initially disclosed by the Watch Tower Society, but several individuals have been identified over time.

Key Members of the Translation Committee


Frederick W. FranzPrincipal TranslatorLimited formal training in Greek; self-taught in Hebrew
Nathan H. KnorrPresident of the Watch Tower SocietyNo formal qualifications in biblical languages
Albert D. SchroederCommittee MemberNo formal qualifications in biblical languages
George D. GangasCommittee MemberNo formal qualifications in biblical languages
Milton G. HenschelCommittee MemberNo formal qualifications in biblical languages

[th]
Name

[/th][th]
Role/Position

[/th][th]
Qualifications/Background

[/th]​


Qualifications and Criticism


  • Frederick W. Franz is noted as the only member with any significant knowledge of biblical languages, having studied Greek for two years and being self-taught in Hebrew.
  • The other members had little to no formal training in biblical languages, which has led to criticism regarding the accuracy and reliability of the translation.
  • Critics argue that the translation reflects the doctrinal biases of the Jehovah's Witnesses, particularly in key theological areas.
The NWT has been both praised for its unique features and criticized for its perceived biases and the qualifications of its translators.

And you are going to trust what you have been told on a bible that was translated with virtually no knowledge in the languages they were translating... Only one man Frederick Franz had any right to open his mout and at that it was limited because as you well know you can open a Strong's concordance but not every word translates the same in every situation.

What a perfect opportunity to change 2 or 3 words and change a meaning that people have relied upon for a couple thousand years or so. change from was God to was A god.

You must use every possible translation possible to understand.

Every single one of King James translators was well suited for their task... all 47 of them.

The 1611 King James Bible was translated by about 47 known scholars, divided into six companies. These translators included experts in Hebrew and Greek, with backgrounds in theology and various academic disciplines, ensuring a high level of scholarly rigor in the translation process.
some references for you to use.

those in the NWT comitee to translate basically had to look to one man who was not well equipped in his
translation and they would of... and perhaps did... put a thumbs up on Frederick Franz's biases.

Every single source you provided except the last confirms that God's name was never used in the NT. That came zout by the NWT and now with pothers bastardizing ones like the KJV that was never that way until recently.


Here are some actual links for you. Dont lose them

Exegesis Ready Research Bible by Herb Jahn



Divine Name-KJV, Paper

As you have shown, they even excluded God name from Ot---( it remained 8 places in kjv) Probably other translations as well.(Early 1960,s)--All through the bible it is clear God wants his name known and used, just not in vain. Jesus made his Fathers name known( John 17:6) and promised to keep on making it known( John 17:26) that name is YHVH(Jehovah) the one Jesus calls-THE ONLY TRUE GOD at John 17:3, the one who sent him= Father.
 
yes, the same "one" person

that's 101G point ........ there is no them.

101G
Gen 1:1In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. 2Now the earth was formless and empty, darkness was over the surface of the deep, and the Spirit of God was hovering over the waters.

Add to this the Word being there according to John, and we have at least two, if not three, which is my own interpretation. There are more than one no matter how you choose to parse it.

Doug
 
Yes when God is spoken of alone=Theos--When another is called god in the passage, God is called Ho Theos.
In Greek, Theos without the article (ho/the) is a generalized term, “a god”, and does not refer to God, but rather a false god(s).

The article preceding Theos (ho Theos/the God, or just capital G God in English.) The article specifies a particular God in contrast to other so called gods. “The ball”,
is a specific ball relative to all other balls that may be chosen.

Ho Theos is the God above all other gods that people may want to worship.

I advise you to follow my advice and take Greek and avoid these mistakes in the future.


Doug
 
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As you have shown, they even excluded God name from Ot---( it remained 8 places in kjv) Probably other translations as well.(Early 1960,s)--All through the bible it is clear God wants his name known and used, just not in vain. Jesus made his Fathers name known( John 17:6) and promised to keep on making it known( John 17:26) that name is YHVH(Jehovah) the one Jesus calls-THE ONLY TRUE GOD at John 17:3, the one who sent him= Father.
Boy.... you do make me do the research... I hope you copy this because I am not doing it again.

Of those that I readily found ....

Bible Translations That Include God’s Name (Old Testament)

TranslationForm UsedNumber of Times God’s Name Appears (OT)Notes on NT
New World Translation (NWT)Jehovah~6,979 appearances in OTAlso uses Jehovah 237 times in the NT (added where context reflects OT quotations) Wikipedia
American Standard Version (ASV, 1901)Jehovah~6,823 appearances in OT WikipediaNo name use in NT
Green’s Literal Translation (LITV)Jehovah~6,866 appearances in OT WikipediaNo name use in NT
Darby Bible (1890)Jehovah~6,810 appearances in OT WikipediaSometimes footnotes
Bible in Living English / Byington (1972)Jehovah~6,800+ appearances in OT Wikipedia
Living Bible (NLT precursor)Jehovah~400+ appearances (informal count) Wikipedia
Holman Christian Standard Bible (HCSB, some editions)Yahweh~495 (2010 edition) Logos Community

Translations With Limited or Specialized Use

What did we ever do without Wiki.... makes a search so much easier.
TranslationForm UsedApprox. Counts / Notes
King James Version (1611)Jehovah8 places (including 6 proper occurrences plus compound names) Wikipedia
Geneva Bible (1560)JehovahSmall number of places (e.g., Exodus 6:3, Psalm 83:18) Wikipedia
Webster’s Revision (1833)JehovahKJV places + ~7 more Wikipedia
English Revised Version (1885)JehovahAdds some to KJV list Wikipedia
Bible in Basic EnglishYahweh~8 times Wikipedia
Names of God Bible (2011/2014)YahwehUsed throughout OT text Wikipedia

Modern Mainstream Translations Generally Do Not Use the Name Directly

Most widely read modern translations do not render YHWH as a name but instead use “LORD” in all caps (as per Jewish tradition):

NIV (New International Version)uses “LORD” with footnote on YHWH Wikipedia

NASB (New American Standard Bible)uses “LORD” with footnote Wikipeda
(note: my go to is NASB95)

ESV (English Standard Version)
uses “LORD” Wikipedia

RSV / NRSV (Revised Standard Versions)uses “LORD” Wikipedia

NKJV (New King James Version)replaces most Jehovah with “LORD” Wikipedia

Most Catholic and mainline Protestant BiblesLORD or LORD GOD (no transliteration) Wikipedia


Summary (Rough Totals by Translation Type)

NWT (full restoration): ~6,979 occurrences of Jehovah in OT. Wikipedia

ASV / Green’s / Darby: ~6,810–6,866 occurrences of Jehovah in OT. Wikipedia+1

HCSB / similar: hundreds of Yahweh renderings depending on edition. Logos Community

KJV family (historical): a handful of Jehovah renderings. Wikipedia

Mainstream modern translations
: use “LORD” (i.e., no direct God name). Wikipedia


MOST Important To Know

Hebrew OT manuscripts contain the divine name YHWH thousands of times (~6,800-7,000). Wikipedia
Most English translations follow Jewish tradition of substituting “LORD” for YHWH rather than using a personal name.


The New World Translation uniquely extensivey restores “Jehovah” not only in the OT but also in the NT clauses where the translators believe the original context underlying Greek quotations contained YHWH. Wikipedia (Note... they had no proof the just assumed)

I also can provide from a different source , if you want,
A table showing how many times each form (Jehovah vs Yahweh vs YHWH vs LORD) appears in specific books (such as Genesis, Psalms, Isaiah). or A list of which verses contain a personal name in each translation.
 
Many are being mislead by Gen 1:26 false reasoning= Let US make man in our image--Us and our=We.
Gen 1:27= HE( not we) created--Prov 8:27-28= HE( not we created)--Isaiah 44:24-created by myself---myself = 1, not 2
So what is truth of who the us =
Jehovah( HE) and his master worker( Prov 8:30)= the one who was beside God during creation process, the one whom God grew especially fond of= his son, Jesus.
John 1:3,, Col 1:16--Things were created-THROUGH Jesus= another created it all= HE= Jehovah. By myself= the only one with the power and wisdom to create.
Jesus tells all he was created at Prov 8:22-The Hebrew word translated possessed means created.= The firstborn of all creation( Col 1:15)
Trinity bible scholars( religions) CANNOT teach truth on these facts because it exposes them as false.
All creation occurred at the beginning. Will you believe bible facts?
"Firstborn" here means RULER. David was the youngest of 7 sons, yet he was called the "firstborn." Jesus is not a created being. He is the Creator. Simple, but fatal misinterpretation.
 
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