What does it mean that Jesus is the Only Begotten Son ?

civic

Active Member
There seems to be some confusion about Jesus as the Only Begotten Son in Christendom. Let me clear up any confusion as to the true identity of the Only Begotten Son.


Mono-genes Kittle
"only-begotten [Mono-genes]

Usage outside the New Testament: In compounds like [Greek] suggests derivation [Greek] rather than birth. Nouns as the first part of the compound give the source, e.g., from Zeus, the earth. Adverbs describe the nature of the derivation, e.g., noble or common. Mono-genes is to be explained along the lines [Greek], rather than [Greek]. The genes does not denote the source (footnote: "Deriving from one alone" would be meaningless) but the nature of derivation. Hence Mono-genes, means "of sole descent," i.e., without brothers or sisters. This gives us the sense of only-begotten. The ref. is to the only child of one's parents, primarily in relation to them. Mono-genes is stronger than [Greek], for it denotes that they have never had more than this child. But the word can also be used more generally without ref. to derivation in the sense of "unique," "unparalleled," "incomparable,"

B. The Use in the New Testament: 1. In the NT Mono-genes occurs only in Lk, Jn. and Hb., not Mk., Mt. or Pl. It is thus found only in later writings. It means "only-begotten." Thus in Hb. Isaac is the Mono-genes, of Abraham (11:17), in Lk. the dead man raised up again at Nain is the only son of his mother (7:12). the daughter of Jairus is the only child (8:42), and the demoniac boy is the only son of his father (8:42). 2. Only Jn. uses Mono-genes, to describe the relation of Jesus to God. Mk. ... The further step taken by Jn. to describe Jesus corresponds to the fact that believers who as children of God are called [Greek] the same word as is applied to Jesus - in Mt., Pl. etc., are always called [Greek] in Jn., 1:12; 11:52; 1 Jn.3:1, 2, 10, 5:2, while [Greek] is reserved for Jesus. Jn. emphasizes more strongly the distinction between Jesus and believers and the uniqueness of Jesus in His divine sonship. It is not that Jesus is not unique in this sonship for Mt., Pl. etc. also. His Messiah-ship proves this. But Jn. puts it in an illuminating and easily remembered formula which was taken up into the baptismal confession and which ever since has formed an inalienable part of the creed of the Church. To Mono-genes, as a designation of Jesus corresponds the fact that God is the [Greek], of Jesus, Jn. 5:18; for [Greek], means to be in a special relation to Jesus which excludes the same relation to others. Mono-genes occurs in Jn. 1:14, 18, 3:16, 18; 1 Jn. 4:9. What is meant is plainest in Jn. 3:16 and I Jn. 4:9. Because Jesus is the only Son of God, His sending into the world is the supreme proof of God's love for the world. On the other side, it is only as the only-begotten Son of God that Jesus can mediate life and salvation from perdition. For life is given only in Him, Jn. 5:26. But the fact that He is the only-begotten Son means also that men are obligated to believe in Him, and that they come under judgment, indeed, have done so already, if they withhold faith from Him, 3:18. Mono-genes is thus a predicate of majesty. This is true in Jn. 1:18. Here we are to read [Greek]. 14 As the only-begotten Son Jesus is in the closest intimacy with God. There is no other with whom God can have similar fellowship. He shares everything with this Son. For this reason Jesus can give what no man can give, namely, the fullest possible eye-witness account of God. He knows God, not just from hearsay, but from incomparably close intercourse with Him. In 3:16, 18; 1 Jn. 4:9, 1: 18 the relation of Jesus is not just compared to that of an only child to its father. It is the relation of the only-begotten to the Father. Similarly in Jn. 1:14: [Greek], His glory is not just compared with that of an only child; it is described as that of the only-begotten Son. Grammatically both interpretations are justifiable. But the total usage of Mono-genes is very emphatically against taking [Greek] Mono-genes as a mere comparison. In Jn. 1: 14, 18, 3:16, 18; 1 Jn. 4:9 Mono-genes denotes more than the uniqueness or Incomparability of Jesus. In all these verses He is expressly called the Son, and He is regarded as such in 1-14. In Jn. Mono-genes denotes the origin of Jesus. He is Mono-genes, as the only-begotten. What Jn. means by [Greek] Mono-genes [Greek] in detail can be known in its full import only in the light of the whole of John's proclamation. For [Greek] is simply a special form of [Greek] Mono-genes [Greek]. When Jn. speaks of the Son of God, he has primarily in view the man Jesus Christ, though not exclusively the man, but also the risen and pre-existent Lord. The relation of the pre-existent Lord to God is that of Son to Father. This comes out Indisputably in 17:5, 24. Jesus is aware that He was with God, and was loved by Him, and endued with glory, before the foundation of the world. This is personal fellowship with God, divine sonship. It is true that neither In the prologue, nor 8:58, nor c. 17 does Jn. use the term "son" for the pre-existent Lord. But He describes His relation to God as that of a son. To maintain that in Jn. the pre-existent Lord is only the Word, and that the Son is only the historical and risen Lord, is to draw too sharp a line between the pre-existence on the one side and the historical and post-historical life on the other. In Jn. the Lord is always the Son. Because He alone was God's Son before the foundation of the world, because the whole love of the Father is for Him alone, because He alone is one with God, because the title God may be ascribed to Him alone, He is the only-begotten Son of God. (Theological Dictionary of the New Testament", Gerhard Kittel, Buchsel, 1967, Vol. IV, p 737-741)

MONOGENÊS

BAGD:
"In the Johannine lit[erature] m[onogenês] is used only of Jesus. The mngs. only, unique may be quite adequate for all its occurrences here...But some (e.g., WBauer, Hdb.) prefer to regard m[onogenês] as somewhat heightened in mng. in J and 1J to only-begotten or begotten of the Only One." (Bauer, it will be remembered, believed the Gospel of John was a gnostic text, and hence saw a theology behind John's writing compatible with the creation of the Logos as a semi-divine intermediary between the Monas and the creation with which He could not directly interact).

Louw & Nida: "Pertaining to what is unique in the sense of being the only one of the same kind or class - 'unique, only.'"

Moulton & Milligan: "Literally 'one of a kind,' 'only,' 'unique' (unicus), not 'only-begotten....'"

Grimm/Thayer: "Single of its kind, only, [A.V. only-begotten]." (Note that Thayer's insertion merely cites the KJV translation, which owes considerable debt to the Vulgate of Jerome, who translated monogenês "unigenitus").

NIDNTT: "The only begotten, or only....RSV and NEB render monogenês as 'only.' This meaning is supported by R. E. Brown, The Gospel According to John, Anchor Bible, I, 1966, 13 f., and D. Moody, “God’s Only Son: The Translation of John 3:16 in the Revised Standard Version,” JBL 72, 1953, 213-19. Lit. it means “of a single kind,” and could even be used in this sense of the Phoenix (1 Clem. 25:2). It is only distantly related to gennao, beget. The idea of “only begotten” goes back to Jerome who used unigenitus in the Vulg. to counter the Arian claim that Jesus was not begotten but made."

Newman: "Unique, only."

LSJ: "Only, single" (references John 1:14, the only NT verse cited).

TDNT: defines monogenês as "only begotten," but distinguishes between nouns ending in -genes and adverbs ending in -genês. The former denote the source of the derivation, the latter the nature of the derivation. Thus, the author (Buchsel) concludes that monogenês means "of sole descent." But Pendrick argues strongly against this view:


monogenes is used five times, all in the writings of the apostle John, of Christ as the Son of God; it is translated "only begotten" in Heb 11:17 of the relationship of Isaac to Abraham.

With reference to Christ, the phrase "the only begotten from the Father," John 1:14, RV (see also the marg.), indicates that as the Son of God He was the sole representative of the Being and character of the One who sent Him. In the original the definite article is omitted both before "only begotten" and before "Father," and its absence in each case serves to lay stress upon the characteristics referred to in the terms used. The apostle's object is to demonstrate what sort of glory it was that he and his fellow apostles had seen. That he is not merely making a comparison with earthly relationships is indicated by para, "from." The glory was that of a unique relationship and the word "begotten" does not imply a beginning of His Sonship. It suggests relationship indeed, but must be distinguished from generation as applied to man.

We can only rightly understand the term "the only begotten" when used of the Son, in the sense of unoriginated relationship. "The begetting is not an event of time, however remote, but a fact irrespective of time. The Christ did not become, but necessarily and eternally is the Son. He, a Person, possesses every attribute of pure Godhood. This necessitates eternity, absolute being; in this respect He is not 'after' the Father" (Moule). The expression also suggests the thought of the deepest affection, as in the case of the OT word yachid, variously rendered, "only one," Gen 22:2, 12; "only son," Jer 6:26; Amos 8:10; Zech 12:10; "only beloved," Prov 4:3, and "darling," Ps 22:20, 35:17.

In John 1:18 the clause "the only begotten son, which is in the bosom of the Father," expresses both His eternal union with the Father in the Godhead and the ineffable intimacy and love between them, the Son sharing all the Father's counsels and enjoying all His affections. Another reading is monogenes Theos, "God only-begotten." In John 3:16 the statement, "God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten son," must not be taken to mean that Christ became the only begotten son by incarnation. The value and the greatness of the gift lay in the Sonship of Him who was given. His Sonship was not the effect of His being given. In John 3:18 the phrase "the name of the only begotten son of God" lays stress upon the full revelation of God's character and will, His love and grace, as conveyed in the name of One who, being in a unique relationship to Him, was provided by Him as the object of faith. In 1 John 4:9 the statement "God hath sent His only begotten son into the world" does not mean that God sent out into the world one who at His birth in Bethlehem had become His Son. Cf. the parallel statement, "God sent forth the Spirit of His Son," Gal 4:6, RV, which could not mean that God sent forth One who became His Spirit when He sent Him. (from Vine's Expository Dictionary of Biblical Words, Copyright © 1985, Thomas Nelson Publishers.)

conclusion: Only Begotten Son is Jesus unique identity as the Eternal Son who is God Incarnate. Do not let any unitarian tell you otherwise or explain it away.

hope this helps !!!
 
I remember in the Case for Christ, the same challenge was brought forth to say begotten meant birthed/created.

The response was that Jesus is more like 'supreme heir' 'unique one' .. as like receiving a Kingdom and inheritance, rather than being 'born out of'.

Of course He was physically birthed through Mary..but existed eternally before that as the Word.
 
I remember in the Case for Christ, the same challenge was brought forth to say begotten meant birthed/created.

The response was that Jesus is more like 'supreme heir' 'unique one' .. as like receiving a Kingdom and inheritance, rather than being 'born out of'.

Of course He was physically birthed through Mary..but existed eternally before that as the Word.
Ditto
 
Keep in memory
that NO LIE is of the truth .
Because i tell us all this big ol inclusive broad road to what they call God and call love .
IS NOT PATH TO GOD , it is of anti christ and its a lie .
SO when it sells and tries to sale us a lie that implies in any way
that even if one denied JESUS is the Christ , that somehow they lovey do was of GOD
THAT IS A LIE . NO love of GOD
would have DENIED HIS SON and the DIRE NEED TO HAVE BELEIVED ON HIM TO BE SAVED .
THE SPIRIT dont testify of broad all inclusive sin accepting many roads accepting PATH TO GOD .
THE SPIRIT TESTIFIES OF THE SON . IT would have TESTIFIED TO OUR HEARTS
THAT JESUS IS THE SON OF GOD , CHRIST OF GOD
and that IN HE ALONE is SALVATION . so keep that in mind my friend .
 
Well, the following seems to kind of blend nicely with the subject of this thread so I thought I would share it.

It does not solve the dilemma but offers differing view for consideration.

@civic ,
I am voicing no opinion other then to say that if anyone has the idea that Jesus was /is not the begotten Son of God they are simply dumb. I would love to call them a fool but we are cautioned against that in Matt 5:22.

If any color changes they are mine for emphasis.


Don Stewart :: Was Jesus Always the Son of God? (Eternal Generation)

There is a question as to whether Jesus was always the eternal Son of God or that He became the Son of God only when He came to earth. This is technically called the "eternal generation of the Son."

Two issues are involved:

  1. The relationship between the nature of the Father and the Son.
  2. The relationship between the ways they carry out their respective roles as members of the Trinity.
The Father Handed Over All Things To Jesus

Matthew tells us that God the Father had all things handed over to Jesus.

All things have been committed to me by my Father. No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal him (Matthew 11:27).
Does this imply that Jesus had always been in a subordinate role to the Father as God the Son? Or does it mean that at a certain time Jesus willingly became subordinate to God the Father?

Did Jesus Become The Son?

Some Bible teacher's believe that Jesus became the Son of God at a certain time in history. There is an Old Testament passage that seems to teach that Jesus became the Son at some point in time.

I will proclaim the decree of the LORD: He said to me, "You are my Son today I have become your Father" (Psalm 2:7).
There are four particular times that are suggested: His coming into the world; His baptism; His resurrection; His ascension.

Did He Become The Son At His Birth?

It is argued that Jesus became the Son of God when He became a human being. At the announcement of His birth the angel said to Mary.

The angel answered and said to her, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; and for that reason the holy Child shall be called the Son of God (Luke 1:35)
Did Jesus Become The Son At His Baptism?

Another view has Jesus becoming God' Son at His baptism. When He was baptized God the Father announced.

And behold, a voice out of the heavens said, "This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well-pleased" (Matthew 3:17).
Was It At His Resurrection That Jesus Became The Son?

It is also held that Jesus became the Son of God at His resurrection.

Who was declared the Son of God with power by the resurrection from the dead, according to the Spirit of holiness, Jesus Christ our Lord (Romans 1:4).
Did Jesus Become The Son At His Ascension?

A fourth view has Jesus becoming the Son of God at His ascension.

When he had made purification of sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, having become as much better than the angels, as he has inherited a more excellent name than they (Hebrews 1:3,4).
Did Jesus Become The Son Before He Came To Earth

A fifth view has Jesus as the Son of God before He came to earth - He was always the Son of God. Jesus has always been in a subordinate position as God the Son from all eternity. Although equal to the Father in nature, He has been submissive in His role.

Jesus Is The Eternal God

Jesus has been God from all eternity. Since all three persons are equally and fully God they have existed from all eternity.

So now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had in your presence before the world existed. Father, I desire that those also, whom you have given me, may be with me where I am, to see my glory, which you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world (John 17:5, 24).
Since God is also unchanging than God has always existed as a Trinity.

Jesus Took The Role Of A Subordinate

The best evidence from Scripture seems to be that Jesus was the eternal Son of God, always in a subordinate role to the Father. However, this subordinate role says nothing about His character for He is equal to the Father in substance.

Jesus Had A Role In Creation
For example, God the Father spoke, the words that brought the universe into existence while God the Son was the agent who brought them to pass. The Bible says of Jesus.

All things came into being through him, and without him not one thing came into being. What has come into being (John 1:3).
This Is Not The Same As Subordinationism

Saying that the Son was eternally subordinate to the Father is not the same as the heresy known as Subordinationism. This false doctrine says the Son was an inferior being to the Father. Though He was the eternal uncreated Son He was still not equal to the Father in His being or attributes. The early church father Origen held to a form of Subordinationism. When the doctrine of the Trinity was clearly formulated at the council of Nicea, this heresy along with others was rejected.

Therefore the Son was equal in being but subordinate in His role. We know that when He returns He will give all things back to the Father and submit Himself to the Father.

When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to the one who put all things in subjection under him, so that God may be all in all (1 Corinthians 15:28).
Summary
There has been a debate in the church as to whether Jesus was the eternal Son of God or that he became the Son of God when he came to the earth. The issue is not his nature for Jesus always has been the eternal God. The question is when did he assume a submissive role with God the Father.

Those who advocate Jesus became the Son of God do not all agree as exactly when this happened. Arguments have been made for his birth, baptism, resurrection and ascension. Some argue that it was sometime before he came to earth. The Scriptures, however, seem to teach that Jesus has always been in a subordinate role to God the Father while still being equal in character. While Jesus character is equal to God the Father his role is one of subordination.
 
Keep in memory
that NO LIE is of the truth .
Because i tell us all this big ol inclusive broad road to what they call God and call love .
IS NOT PATH TO GOD , it is of anti christ and its a lie .
SO when it sells and tries to sale us a lie that implies in any way
that even if one denied JESUS is the Christ , that somehow they lovey do was of GOD
THAT IS A LIE . NO love of GOD
would have DENIED HIS SON and the DIRE NEED TO HAVE BELEIVED ON HIM TO BE SAVED .
THE SPIRIT dont testify of broad all inclusive sin accepting many roads accepting PATH TO GOD .
THE SPIRIT TESTIFIES OF THE SON . IT would have TESTIFIED TO OUR HEARTS
THAT JESUS IS THE SON OF GOD , CHRIST OF GOD
and that IN HE ALONE is SALVATION . so keep that in mind my friend .
@Totlordbeallglory
“Enter ye in at the strait gate: for wide is the gate, and broad is the way, that leadeth to destruction, and many there be which go in thereat: because strait is the gate, and narrow is the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find it.”
‭‭Matthew‬ ‭7‬:‭13‬-‭14‬ ‭KJV‬‬
 
Well, the following seems to kind of blend nicely with the subject of this thread so I thought I would share it.

It does not solve the dilemma but offers differing view for consideration.

@civic ,
I am voicing no opinion other then to say that if anyone has the idea that Jesus was /is not the begotten Son of God they are simply dumb. I would love to call them a fool but we are cautioned against that in Matt 5:22.

If any color changes they are mine for emphasis.


Don Stewart :: Was Jesus Always the Son of God? (Eternal Generation)

There is a question as to whether Jesus was always the eternal Son of God or that He became the Son of God only when He came to earth. This is technically called the "eternal generation of the Son."

Two issues are involved:

  1. The relationship between the nature of the Father and the Son.
  2. The relationship between the ways they carry out their respective roles as members of the Trinity.
The Father Handed Over All Things To Jesus

Matthew tells us that God the Father had all things handed over to Jesus.


Does this imply that Jesus had always been in a subordinate role to the Father as God the Son? Or does it mean that at a certain time Jesus willingly became subordinate to God the Father?

Did Jesus Become The Son?

Some Bible teacher's believe that Jesus became the Son of God at a certain time in history. There is an Old Testament passage that seems to teach that Jesus became the Son at some point in time.


There are four particular times that are suggested: His coming into the world; His baptism; His resurrection; His ascension.

Did He Become The Son At His Birth?

It is argued that Jesus became the Son of God when He became a human being. At the announcement of His birth the angel said to Mary.


Did Jesus Become The Son At His Baptism?

Another view has Jesus becoming God' Son at His baptism. When He was baptized God the Father announced.


Was It At His Resurrection That Jesus Became The Son?

It is also held that Jesus became the Son of God at His resurrection.


Did Jesus Become The Son At His Ascension?

A fourth view has Jesus becoming the Son of God at His ascension.


Did Jesus Become The Son Before He Came To Earth

A fifth view has Jesus as the Son of God before He came to earth - He was always the Son of God. Jesus has always been in a subordinate position as God the Son from all eternity. Although equal to the Father in nature, He has been submissive in His role.

Jesus Is The Eternal God

Jesus has been God from all eternity. Since all three persons are equally and fully God they have existed from all eternity.


Since God is also unchanging than God has always existed as a Trinity.

Jesus Took The Role Of A Subordinate

The best evidence from Scripture seems to be that Jesus was the eternal Son of God, always in a subordinate role to the Father. However, this subordinate role says nothing about His character for He is equal to the Father in substance.

Jesus Had A Role In Creation
For example, God the Father spoke, the words that brought the universe into existence while God the Son was the agent who brought them to pass. The Bible says of Jesus.


This Is Not The Same As Subordinationism

Saying that the Son was eternally subordinate to the Father is not the same as the heresy known as Subordinationism. This false doctrine says the Son was an inferior being to the Father. Though He was the eternal uncreated Son He was still not equal to the Father in His being or attributes. The early church father Origen held to a form of Subordinationism. When the doctrine of the Trinity was clearly formulated at the council of Nicea, this heresy along with others was rejected.

Therefore the Son was equal in being but subordinate in His role. We know that when He returns He will give all things back to the Father and submit Himself to the Father.


Summary
There has been a debate in the church as to whether Jesus was the eternal Son of God or that he became the Son of God when he came to the earth. The issue is not his nature for Jesus always has been the eternal God. The question is when did he assume a submissive role with God the Father.

Those who advocate Jesus became the Son of God do not all agree as exactly when this happened. Arguments have been made for his birth, baptism, resurrection and ascension. Some argue that it was sometime before he came to earth. The Scriptures, however, seem to teach that Jesus has always been in a subordinate role to God the Father while still being equal in character. While Jesus character is equal to God the Father his role is one of subordination.
1-I believe the following is biblical and true. He is the Eternal Son and also became the begotten Son in time via His birth, Baptism. Resurrection and Ascension as the scriptures point out. So its not either or which is a false dichotomy fallacy its and, and both. Christ is both the Eternal Son and only begotten Son in time.

2- Within the Godhead/Trinity there are different roles or functions that the Father, Son and Holy Spirit do. The Father sends the Son, the Son sends the Holy Spirit, the Holy Spirit always points to the Son and glorifies Him, the Son glorifies the Father, the Father exalts the Son, the Son obeys the Father- is subordinate. These are just a few things that make their roles within the Godhead ( family ) function.

3- God created man/woman to have different roles/functions within the human family but this does not make a man or womans human nature any less than the other. Children also have a different role/function within this family unit that was designed to reflect Gods nature/ character.

4- The Church is also designed to reflect Gods character and we know believers have different roles/functions within the body to carry out.

5- These 2 institutions the family and church were designed to reflect God. There is much more I can say about them but this is just a quick summary off the top of my head.

hope this helps !!!
 
1-I believe the following is biblical and true. He is the Eternal Son and also became the begotten Son in time via His birth, Baptism. Resurrection and Ascension as the scriptures point out. So its not either or which is a false dichotomy fallacy its and, and both. Christ is both the Eternal Son and only begotten Son in time.

2- Within the Godhead/Trinity there are different roles or functions that the Father, Son and Holy Spirit do. The Father sends the Son, the Son sends the Holy Spirit, the Holy Spirit always points to the Son and glorifies Him, the Son glorifies the Father, the Father exalts the Son, the Son obeys the Father- is subordinate. These are just a few things that make their roles within the Godhead ( family ) function.

3- God created man/woman to have different roles/functions within the human family but this does not make a man or womans human nature any less than the other. Children also have a different role/function within this family unit that was designed to reflect Gods nature/ character.

4- The Church is also designed to reflect Gods character and we know believers have different roles/functions within the body to carry out.

5- These 2 institutions the family and church were designed to reflect God. There is much more I can say about them but this is just a quick summary off the top of my head.

hope this helps !!!
I have no disagreement other then Eternal SON. But I am working on it..... For it to have become an accepted statement it had to be written somewhere. Even in the archives of the historians. If I am proven wrong that they were the Son and Father forever and forever I will be the first to admit it. After all. It is certain they were together forever and forever, it is just the relationship I am at odds with as to when that happened.

I, also, have always been one of those who believed begotten meant birthed. With all the begats as in Matt 1:2 Abraham begat Isaac; and Isaac begat Jacob; and Jacob begat Judas and his brethren;

And having always seen definitions such as

King James Dictionary
Begotten

To have born; brought forth.
Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: and every one that loveth him that begat loveth him also that is BEGOTTEN of him. ( 1 John 1:1 Luke 5:1 )

AI
Yes, "begat" and "begotten" are related terms in the Bible, both referring to the act of bringing forth or producing offspring. "Begat" is often used in genealogies to indicate parentage, while "begotten" is used to describe a unique relationship, particularly in reference to Jesus as the Son of God.

So this is where my mind has been.

shrugsmiley - Copy.gif

Now... I found this and it blew my socks off because it was something I have never heard before and could well make a lot of sense.... or not.

The Lord Jesus Christ is rightly called in the King James Bible, "the only begotten Son of God." Furthermore, the word "begotten" refers to His resurrection, actually, not His birth in Bethlehem as often supposed (cf. Acts 13:33-34).

Acts 13: 33-34 God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee. 34 And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise, I will give you the sure mercies of David.


BIBLE VERSIONS AND MANUSCRIPTS, GOD, Is Jesus Christ God’s “one and only Son” or “only begotten Son?”, Is Jesus Christ God’s “one and only Son” or “only begotten Son?”

Is Jesus Christ God’s “one and only Son” or “only begotten Son?”

03/06/2017 Christian ambassador (Shawn Brasseaux)

IS JESUS CHRIST GOD’S “ONE AND ONLY SON” OR “ONLY BEGOTTEN SON?”

by Shawn Brasseaux

One of the disadvantages of modern English Bibles is that they tremendously alter the way English-speaking Christians think and converse. Phrases that have been associated with Christianity for decades or centuries have been dropped because they have been reworded. Consequently, many Christians use new Bible terms and employ new phrases because they are using new “bibles.” They are saying things differently than the standard way Christians have stated biblical teachings for centuries (this allows for intentional, and even deliberate, doctrinal modifications). With modern English versions now competing with the 405-year-old King James Bible, there is no longer a common Christian voice. Every church member is now quoting from his or her own “preferred” Bible translation. Remember, to obtain a copyright, translators of all modern English versions must make substantial word changes to the Bible text. With every new translation comes a further weakening of the one Christian voice God intended. Just listen to Christian people as they all read the same verse from their favorite version—it is nothing but convolution and confusion!

Take the issue of calling Jesus Christ “God’s one and only Son” (modern versions) versus “God’s only begotten Son” (King James Bible). You used to hear and read “God’s only begotten Son” in Christian preaching and literature. Now, you usually hear and read “God’s only and one Son.” On the surface, this seems insignificant. However, it is a serious problem. Firstly, some Bible readers are calling Jesus one thing and other Bible readers are calling Him something else. Secondly… well… let us just say it communicates a major doctrinal error we must skillfully expose and swiftly correct!

The expression “only begotten” is the Greek word monogenes, which literally means, “only generated.” It appears six times in the King James Bible—John 1:14, John 1:18, John 3:16, John 3:18, Hebrews 11:17, and 1 John 4:9. The one in Hebrews is about Isaac; the other five refer to Jesus Christ. We will look briefly at those verses now:

  • John 1:14: “And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.”
  • John 1:18: “No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.”
  • John 3:16: “For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.”
  • John 3:18: “He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.”
  • Hebrews 11:17: “By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son,”
  • 1 John 4:9: “In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.
The New International Version (NIV), which is perhaps the most popular modern English “bible” today, completely eliminates “begotten” from the above verses. Rather than reading “God’s only begotten Son,” it says “God’s one and only Son.” The same is true of other popular modern translations—English Standard Version (ESV), Contemporary English Version (CEV), Holman Christian Standard Bible (HCSB), The Message (MSG), New Living Translation (NLT), Revised Standard Version (RSV), New Revised Standard Version (NRSV), and New American (Catholic) Bible (NAB). In all fairness, it should be pointed out that the New American Standard Bible (NASB), New King James Version (NKJV), and American Standard Version (ASV), keep the phrase “only begotten” in all five verses (agreeing with the King James Bible). Although, in John 1:18, the NASB has the phrase “only begotten God” rather than “only begotten Son,” thereby supporting the ancient Arian heresy that Jesus was some “created God!”

So, friend, I bet you are wondering why we could not call the Lord Jesus merely “God’s one and only Son?” It is technically incorrect—especially for a so-called “bible”—to call Jesus “God’s one and only Son.” God has many sons according to the Bible (no matter what version you use!). For example, angels are called “the sons of God” (Job 38:7). Adam, the first man, being a direct creation of God, is called “the son of God” (Luke 3:38). In John 1:12, we read about believing Jews who became “the sons of God.” We members of the Church the Body of Christ are called “the sons of God” (Romans 8:14). See, friend, God has millions of “sons.” It is therefore foolish when so-called “educated” Bible translators call the Lord Jesus “God’s one and only Son.” They are outright contradicting these verses—even in their own translations! Moreover, they are demonstrating their Bible ignorance in yet another manner.

Why is the term “begotten” so important? Why should we use the King James Bible expression “the only begotten Son of God?” “Begotten” is a unique title; thus, to eliminate it is to diminish the Lord Jesus Christ’s special status as “begotten.” Why is “begotten” so important when referring to Him? “Begat” means “to give life to.” The first 16 verses of Matthew chapter 1 easily demonstrate this. You can read about numerous men fathering sons. For example, verse 2 says: “Abraham begat Isaac; and Isaac begat Jacob; and Jacob begat Judas and his brethren….” This verb “begat” is related to the adjective “begotten.”

When the King James Bible calls Jesus Christ “God’s only begotten Son in the Book of John and in the Book of 1 John, it links back to an Old Testament concept found in the Book of Psalms. If we remove “begotten,” as the modern English versions have done, then we lose the connection to Psalm 2:7, which says: “I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.”

Now, when did Jesus Christ become the only begotten Son of God?” When was Psalm 2:7 fulfilled? The common assumption is when He was born in Bethlehem of Judaea. However, the Bible teaches something else. Acts 13:33-34 makes the truth quite plain: “[33] God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee. [34] And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise, I will give you the sure mercies of David.” According to the Apostle Paul, led by the Holy Spirit to preach Acts 13:33-34, Psalm 2:7 is properly interpreted as being fulfilled at Jesus Christ’s resurrection. It was at the resurrection that Father God gave Jesus life—He became God’s “only begotten Son” at His resurrection in the tomb. For reinforcement, we look at some auxiliary verses.

  • Hebrews 5:5: “So also Christ glorified not himself to be made an high priest; but he that said unto him, Thou art my Son, to day have I begotten(According to the writer of the Book of Hebrews, Father God resurrected Jesus in order to ordain Him as Israel’s high priest.)
  • Revelation 1:5: “And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood….” (The expression “first begotten of the dead” again tells us that “begotten” is connected to resurrection. “First begotten” is defined even further in Colossians 1:18, which we appeal to next.)
  • Colossians 1:18: “And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.” (God the Son, Christ Jesus, is called “the firstborn from the dead” because His resurrection is the first of many subsequent resurrections.)
CONCLUSION

Father God has many sons, but He has one “only begotten Son.” It is therefore incorrect to call Jesus “God’s one and only Son” as some modern English versions do. The Lord Jesus Christ is rightly called in the King James Bible, “the only begotten Son of God.” Furthermore, the word “begotten” refers to His resurrection, actually, not His birth in Bethlehem as often supposed (cf. Acts 13:33-34). Jesus Christ is the first son that Father God has raised from the dead: He is the “firstborn from the dead” and “first begotten of the dead” in the sense that there are more sons to follow Him in resurrection. (This is why Christ is called “the firstfruits” of resurrection in 1 Corinthians 15:23. Firstfruits are the few plants that ripen before the main harvest matures.) Father God resurrected Jesus Christ. He will resurrect Israel’s believing remnant one day. He will also resurrect us the Church the Body of Christ one day. All of these sons of God are one giant line of resurrected beings in Father God’s purpose and plan. As of right now though, Jesus Christ is “the only begotten Son of God.” Leave the King James Bible text alone and just believe it and rejoice in its simple truths!
 
I have no disagreement other then Eternal SON. But I am working on it..... For it to have become an accepted statement it had to be written somewhere. Even in the archives of the historians. If I am proven wrong that they were the Son and Father forever and forever I will be the first to admit it. After all. It is certain they were together forever and forever, it is just the relationship I am at odds with as to when that happened.

I, also, have always been one of those who believed begotten meant birthed. With all the begats as in Matt 1:2 Abraham begat Isaac; and Isaac begat Jacob; and Jacob begat Judas and his brethren;

And having always seen definitions such as

King James Dictionary
Begotten

To have born; brought forth.
Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: and every one that loveth him that begat loveth him also that is BEGOTTEN of him. ( 1 John 1:1 Luke 5:1 )

AI

Yes, "begat" and "begotten" are related terms in the Bible, both referring to the act of bringing forth or producing offspring. "Begat" is often used in genealogies to indicate parentage, while "begotten" is used to describe a unique relationship, particularly in reference to Jesus as the Son of God.

So this is where my mind has been.

View attachment 2110

Now... I found this and it blew my socks off because it was something I have never heard before and could well make a lot of sense.... or not.

The Lord Jesus Christ is rightly called in the King James Bible, "the only begotten Son of God." Furthermore, the word "begotten" refers to His resurrection, actually, not His birth in Bethlehem as often supposed (cf. Acts 13:33-34).

Acts 13: 33-34 God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee. 34 And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise, I will give you the sure mercies of David.


BIBLE VERSIONS AND MANUSCRIPTS, GOD, Is Jesus Christ God’s “one and only Son” or “only begotten Son?”, Is Jesus Christ God’s “one and only Son” or “only begotten Son?”

Is Jesus Christ God’s “one and only Son” or “only begotten Son?”

03/06/2017 Christian ambassador (Shawn Brasseaux)

IS JESUS CHRIST GOD’S “ONE AND ONLY SON” OR “ONLY BEGOTTEN SON?”

by Shawn Brasseaux

One of the disadvantages of modern English Bibles is that they tremendously alter the way English-speaking Christians think and converse. Phrases that have been associated with Christianity for decades or centuries have been dropped because they have been reworded. Consequently, many Christians use new Bible terms and employ new phrases because they are using new “bibles.” They are saying things differently than the standard way Christians have stated biblical teachings for centuries (this allows for intentional, and even deliberate, doctrinal modifications). With modern English versions now competing with the 405-year-old King James Bible, there is no longer a common Christian voice. Every church member is now quoting from his or her own “preferred” Bible translation. Remember, to obtain a copyright, translators of all modern English versions must make substantial word changes to the Bible text. With every new translation comes a further weakening of the one Christian voice God intended. Just listen to Christian people as they all read the same verse from their favorite version—it is nothing but convolution and confusion!

Take the issue of calling Jesus Christ “God’s one and only Son” (modern versions) versus “God’s only begotten Son” (King James Bible). You used to hear and read “God’s only begotten Son” in Christian preaching and literature. Now, you usually hear and read “God’s only and one Son.” On the surface, this seems insignificant. However, it is a serious problem. Firstly, some Bible readers are calling Jesus one thing and other Bible readers are calling Him something else. Secondly… well… let us just say it communicates a major doctrinal error we must skillfully expose and swiftly correct!

The expression “only begotten” is the Greek word monogenes, which literally means, “only generated.” It appears six times in the King James Bible—John 1:14, John 1:18, John 3:16, John 3:18, Hebrews 11:17, and 1 John 4:9. The one in Hebrews is about Isaac; the other five refer to Jesus Christ. We will look briefly at those verses now:


  • John 1:14: “And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.”
  • John 1:18: “No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.”
  • John 3:16: “For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.”
  • John 3:18: “He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.”
  • Hebrews 11:17: “By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son,”
  • 1 John 4:9: “In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.
The New International Version (NIV), which is perhaps the most popular modern English “bible” today, completely eliminates “begotten” from the above verses. Rather than reading “God’s only begotten Son,” it says “God’s one and only Son.” The same is true of other popular modern translations—English Standard Version (ESV), Contemporary English Version (CEV), Holman Christian Standard Bible (HCSB), The Message (MSG), New Living Translation (NLT), Revised Standard Version (RSV), New Revised Standard Version (NRSV), and New American (Catholic) Bible (NAB). In all fairness, it should be pointed out that the New American Standard Bible (NASB), New King James Version (NKJV), and American Standard Version (ASV), keep the phrase “only begotten” in all five verses (agreeing with the King James Bible). Although, in John 1:18, the NASB has the phrase “only begotten God” rather than “only begotten Son,” thereby supporting the ancient Arian heresy that Jesus was some “created God!”

So, friend, I bet you are wondering why we could not call the Lord Jesus merely “God’s one and only Son?” It is technically incorrect—especially for a so-called “bible”—to call Jesus “God’s one and only Son.” God has many sons according to the Bible (no matter what version you use!). For example, angels are called “the sons of God” (Job 38:7). Adam, the first man, being a direct creation of God, is called “the son of God” (Luke 3:38). In John 1:12, we read about believing Jews who became “the sons of God.” We members of the Church the Body of Christ are called “the sons of God” (Romans 8:14). See, friend, God has millions of “sons.” It is therefore foolish when so-called “educated” Bible translators call the Lord Jesus “God’s one and only Son.” They are outright contradicting these verses—even in their own translations! Moreover, they are demonstrating their Bible ignorance in yet another manner.

Why is the term “begotten” so important? Why should we use the King James Bible expression “the only begotten Son of God?” “Begotten” is a unique title; thus, to eliminate it is to diminish the Lord Jesus Christ’s special status as “begotten.” Why is “begotten” so important when referring to Him? “Begat” means “to give life to.” The first 16 verses of Matthew chapter 1 easily demonstrate this. You can read about numerous men fathering sons. For example, verse 2 says: “Abraham begat Isaac; and Isaac begat Jacob; and Jacob begat Judas and his brethren….” This verb “begat” is related to the adjective “begotten.”

When the King James Bible calls Jesus Christ “God’s only begotten Son in the Book of John and in the Book of 1 John, it links back to an Old Testament concept found in the Book of Psalms. If we remove “begotten,” as the modern English versions have done, then we lose the connection to Psalm 2:7, which says: “I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.”

Now, when did Jesus Christ become the only begotten Son of God?” When was Psalm 2:7 fulfilled? The common assumption is when He was born in Bethlehem of Judaea. However, the Bible teaches something else. Acts 13:33-34 makes the truth quite plain: “[33] God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee. [34] And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise, I will give you the sure mercies of David.” According to the Apostle Paul, led by the Holy Spirit to preach Acts 13:33-34, Psalm 2:7 is properly interpreted as being fulfilled at Jesus Christ’s resurrection. It was at the resurrection that Father God gave Jesus life—He became God’s “only begotten Son” at His resurrection in the tomb. For reinforcement, we look at some auxiliary verses.


  • Hebrews 5:5: “So also Christ glorified not himself to be made an high priest; but he that said unto him, Thou art my Son, to day have I begotten(According to the writer of the Book of Hebrews, Father God resurrected Jesus in order to ordain Him as Israel’s high priest.)
  • Revelation 1:5: “And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood….” (The expression “first begotten of the dead” again tells us that “begotten” is connected to resurrection. “First begotten” is defined even further in Colossians 1:18, which we appeal to next.)
  • Colossians 1:18: “And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.” (God the Son, Christ Jesus, is called “the firstborn from the dead” because His resurrection is the first of many subsequent resurrections.)
CONCLUSION

Father God has many sons, but He has one “only begotten Son.” It is therefore incorrect to call Jesus “God’s one and only Son” as some modern English versions do. The Lord Jesus Christ is rightly called in the King James Bible, “the only begotten Son of God.” Furthermore, the word “begotten” refers to His resurrection, actually, not His birth in Bethlehem as often supposed (cf. Acts 13:33-34). Jesus Christ is the first son that Father God has raised from the dead: He is the “firstborn from the dead” and “first begotten of the dead” in the sense that there are more sons to follow Him in resurrection. (This is why Christ is called “the firstfruits” of resurrection in 1 Corinthians 15:23. Firstfruits are the few plants that ripen before the main harvest matures.) Father God resurrected Jesus Christ. He will resurrect Israel’s believing remnant one day. He will also resurrect us the Church the Body of Christ one day. All of these sons of God are one giant line of resurrected beings in Father God’s purpose and plan. As of right now though, Jesus Christ is “the only begotten Son of God.” Leave the King James Bible text alone and just believe it and rejoice in its simple truths!
Here is where the above argument breaks down.

If you are not going to call the 2nd Person of the Trinity the Eternal Son then do not refer to the Father as the Eternal Father, God the Father or Jesus as God the Son.

The Father did not become the Father , He has always been the Father.

Also there is another problem you have in John 1:18- early manuscripts have only begotten God.

ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 1:18 Greek NT: Nestle 1904
Θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς Θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ Πατρὸς, ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.
ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 1:18 Greek NT: Westcott and Hort 1881
θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.

Now what’s good for the goose is good for the gander since you are rejecting modern translations in favor of older ones.

So now according to your own reasoning you have God being begotten by your own definition in time.

This would be a major heresy by your own biased definition above. There is no way around it with monogenes Theos

I have provided many Greek lexicon references affirming monogenes can and does mean unique , one of a kind.

And I’m not new to all the objections as I’ve been debating this for well over 40 years.

hope this helps !!!
 
@civic

Here is where the above argument breaks down.

If you are not going to call the 2nd Person of the Trinity the Eternal Son then do not refer to the Father as the Eternal Father, God the Father or Jesus as God the Son.

I do not believe I did, but if I did you are correct and I would have been wrong.
The Father did not become the Father , He has always been the Father.

Then that is proof that the Son was always the Son. Kind of like one of the links I posted earlier.
Also there is another problem you have in John 1:18- early manuscripts have only begotten God.
I know that Greek from the Greek interliner is older. But where did it come from? Was this not something that the translators got their hand on to use? BTW IT IS POSTED BELOW. THEY DID SAY "THE ONLY BEGOTTEN GOD..... " THE ONE IN THE BOSOM OF THE FATHER HE HAS MADE HIM KNOWS.

SURE LOOKS LIKE THE GREEKS CALLED JESUS GOD.
ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 1:18 Greek NT: Nestle 1904
Θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς Θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ Πατρὸς, ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.
This translates:
No one has ever seen God; Only-begotten God Whoever <unk>enters the bosom of the Father, that explanation

Now... read the interlinear below.


ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 1:18 Greek NT: Westcott and Hort 1881
θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.
This also translates:
No one has ever seen God; Only-begotten God Whoever <unk>enters the bosom of the Father, that explanation

Now... read the interlinear below again

Now what’s good for the goose is good for the gander since you are rejecting modern translations in favor of older ones.

So now according to your own reasoning you have God being begotten by your own definition in time.

Interlinear says
[the] only begotten God the [One] being
in the bosom of the Father He has made [Him] known
IT SAYS The begotten God... JESUS ... in the bosom of the Father... THAT WOULD BE GOD THE FATHER.
Proving Jesus was considered by the Greek side as God.

This would be a major heresy by your own biased definition above. There is no way around it with monogenes Theos

If Jesus being called God is a heresy.... then I am a heretic.


I have provided many Greek lexicon references affirming monogenes can and does mean unique , one of a kind.

And I’m not new to all the objections as I’ve been debating this for well over 40 years.

hope this helps !!!
English/Greek Interlinear John 1:18

Theon oudeis heōraken pōpote monogenēs Theos ho ōn

18 Θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε ;
μονογενὴς Θεὸς , ὁ ὢν

God no one has seen ever yet [the] only begotten God the [One] being


eis ton kolpon tou Patros ekeinos exēgēsato

εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ Πατρὸς , ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο .

in the bosom of the Father He has made [Him] known
And I am going to leave now with one final comment.

The Peshitta says id John 1:18

18No man has seen God at any time; The Only Begotten God Who is in the bosom of The Father, he has declared him.”
Aramaic John 1:18
18No man has seen God at any time; The Only Begotten God Who is in the bosom of The Father, he has declared him."
New Peschito Syriac

1:18 ALOHA no man hath ever seen: the one-begotten God, he who is in the bosom of his Father, he hath declared him

There are many many Aramaic or Peshitta trans;lations I can post. The all read with The Only Begotten God because they knew that Jesus was God... as the wordings demonstrate
 
@civic



I do not believe I did, but if I did you are correct and I would have been wrong.


Then that is proof that the Son was always the Son. Kind of like one of the links I posted earlier.

I know that Greek from the Greek interliner is older. But where did it come from? Was this not something that the translators got their hand on to use? BTW IT IS POSTED BELOW. THEY DID SAY "THE ONLY BEGOTTEN GOD..... " THE ONE IN THE BOSOM OF THE FATHER HE HAS MADE HIM KNOWS.

SURE LOOKS LIKE THE GREEKS CALLED JESUS GOD.

This translates:
No one has ever seen God; Only-begotten God Whoever <unk>enters the bosom of the Father, that explanation

Now... read the interlinear below.


This also translates:
No one has ever seen God; Only-begotten God Whoever <unk>enters the bosom of the Father, that explanation

Now... read the interlinear below again



Interlinear says
[the] only begotten God the [One] being
in the bosom of the Father He has made [Him] known
IT SAYS The begotten God... JESUS ... in the bosom of the Father... THAT WOULD BE GOD THE FATHER.
Proving Jesus was considered by the Greek side as God.



If Jesus being called God is a heresy.... then I am a heretic.

English/Greek Interlinear John 1:18

Theon oudeis heōraken pōpote monogenēs Theos ho ōn

18 Θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε ;
μονογενὴς Θεὸς , ὁ ὢν

God no one has seen ever yet [the] only begotten God the [One] being


eis ton kolpon tou Patros ekeinos exēgēsato

εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ Πατρὸς , ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο .


in the bosom of the Father He has made [Him] known
And I am going to leave now with one final comment.

The Peshitta says id John 1:18

18No man has seen God at any time; The Only Begotten God Who is in the bosom of The Father, he has declared him.”
Aramaic John 1:18
18No man has seen God at any time; The Only Begotten God Who is in the bosom of The Father, he has declared him."
New Peschito Syriac

1:18 ALOHA no man hath ever seen: the one-begotten God, he who is in the bosom of his Father, he hath declared him

There are many many Aramaic or Peshitta trans;lations I can post. The all read with The Only Begotten God because they knew that Jesus was God... as the wordings demonstrate
You missed the point with monogenes. It can and does mean unique , one of a kind. Not begotten in time like with humans whom are begat.
 
From the studies I've read, although monogenes main definition is now discovered to be a compound from only+race instead of only+beget and thus something like "unique," HOWEVER—in practice there are still instances although fewer where even dissidents admit it appears to carry a connotation of beget as well. That is, it is still within its semantic range, even if less frequent.

I would ask here, what does it mean to have an unbegotten son? I would argue the very word son already carries within it the idea of begotten. And since monogenes can POTENTIALLY have that meaning, even if used less frequently, it seems that "monogenes hios" would be a DOUBLE testament to begotten, rather than a single. And monogenes theos is not necessitated to be in time.
 
From the studies I've read, although monogenes main definition is now discovered to be a compound from only+race instead of only+beget and thus something like "unique," HOWEVER—in practice there are still instances although fewer where even dissidents admit it appears to carry a connotation of beget as well. That is, it is still within its semantic range, even if less frequent.

I would ask here, what does it mean to have an unbegotten son? I would argue the very word son already carries within it the idea of begotten. And since monogenes can POTENTIALLY have that meaning, even if used less frequently, it seems that "monogenes hios" would be a DOUBLE testament to begotten, rather than a single. And monogenes theos is not necessitated to be in time.
And neither is only begotten uios-son necessitated to be in time. :)
 
There seems to be some confusion about Jesus as the Only Begotten Son in Christendom. Let me clear up any confusion as to the true identity of the Only Begotten Son.


Mono-genes Kittle
"only-begotten [Mono-genes]

Usage outside the New Testament: In compounds like [Greek] suggests derivation [Greek] rather than birth. Nouns as the first part of the compound give the source, e.g., from Zeus, the earth. Adverbs describe the nature of the derivation, e.g., noble or common. Mono-genes is to be explained along the lines [Greek], rather than [Greek]. The genes does not denote the source (footnote: "Deriving from one alone" would be meaningless) but the nature of derivation. Hence Mono-genes, means "of sole descent," i.e., without brothers or sisters. This gives us the sense of only-begotten. The ref. is to the only child of one's parents, primarily in relation to them. Mono-genes is stronger than [Greek], for it denotes that they have never had more than this child. But the word can also be used more generally without ref. to derivation in the sense of "unique," "unparalleled," "incomparable,"

B. The Use in the New Testament: 1. In the NT Mono-genes occurs only in Lk, Jn. and Hb., not Mk., Mt. or Pl. It is thus found only in later writings. It means "only-begotten." Thus in Hb. Isaac is the Mono-genes, of Abraham (11:17), in Lk. the dead man raised up again at Nain is the only son of his mother (7:12). the daughter of Jairus is the only child (8:42), and the demoniac boy is the only son of his father (8:42). 2. Only Jn. uses Mono-genes, to describe the relation of Jesus to God. Mk. ... The further step taken by Jn. to describe Jesus corresponds to the fact that believers who as children of God are called [Greek] the same word as is applied to Jesus - in Mt., Pl. etc., are always called [Greek] in Jn., 1:12; 11:52; 1 Jn.3:1, 2, 10, 5:2, while [Greek] is reserved for Jesus. Jn. emphasizes more strongly the distinction between Jesus and believers and the uniqueness of Jesus in His divine sonship. It is not that Jesus is not unique in this sonship for Mt., Pl. etc. also. His Messiah-ship proves this. But Jn. puts it in an illuminating and easily remembered formula which was taken up into the baptismal confession and which ever since has formed an inalienable part of the creed of the Church. To Mono-genes, as a designation of Jesus corresponds the fact that God is the [Greek], of Jesus, Jn. 5:18; for [Greek], means to be in a special relation to Jesus which excludes the same relation to others. Mono-genes occurs in Jn. 1:14, 18, 3:16, 18; 1 Jn. 4:9. What is meant is plainest in Jn. 3:16 and I Jn. 4:9. Because Jesus is the only Son of God, His sending into the world is the supreme proof of God's love for the world. On the other side, it is only as the only-begotten Son of God that Jesus can mediate life and salvation from perdition. For life is given only in Him, Jn. 5:26. But the fact that He is the only-begotten Son means also that men are obligated to believe in Him, and that they come under judgment, indeed, have done so already, if they withhold faith from Him, 3:18. Mono-genes is thus a predicate of majesty. This is true in Jn. 1:18. Here we are to read [Greek]. 14 As the only-begotten Son Jesus is in the closest intimacy with God. There is no other with whom God can have similar fellowship. He shares everything with this Son. For this reason Jesus can give what no man can give, namely, the fullest possible eye-witness account of God. He knows God, not just from hearsay, but from incomparably close intercourse with Him. In 3:16, 18; 1 Jn. 4:9, 1: 18 the relation of Jesus is not just compared to that of an only child to its father. It is the relation of the only-begotten to the Father. Similarly in Jn. 1:14: [Greek], His glory is not just compared with that of an only child; it is described as that of the only-begotten Son. Grammatically both interpretations are justifiable. But the total usage of Mono-genes is very emphatically against taking [Greek] Mono-genes as a mere comparison. In Jn. 1: 14, 18, 3:16, 18; 1 Jn. 4:9 Mono-genes denotes more than the uniqueness or Incomparability of Jesus. In all these verses He is expressly called the Son, and He is regarded as such in 1-14. In Jn. Mono-genes denotes the origin of Jesus. He is Mono-genes, as the only-begotten. What Jn. means by [Greek] Mono-genes [Greek] in detail can be known in its full import only in the light of the whole of John's proclamation. For [Greek] is simply a special form of [Greek] Mono-genes [Greek]. When Jn. speaks of the Son of God, he has primarily in view the man Jesus Christ, though not exclusively the man, but also the risen and pre-existent Lord. The relation of the pre-existent Lord to God is that of Son to Father. This comes out Indisputably in 17:5, 24. Jesus is aware that He was with God, and was loved by Him, and endued with glory, before the foundation of the world. This is personal fellowship with God, divine sonship. It is true that neither In the prologue, nor 8:58, nor c. 17 does Jn. use the term "son" for the pre-existent Lord. But He describes His relation to God as that of a son. To maintain that in Jn. the pre-existent Lord is only the Word, and that the Son is only the historical and risen Lord, is to draw too sharp a line between the pre-existence on the one side and the historical and post-historical life on the other. In Jn. the Lord is always the Son. Because He alone was God's Son before the foundation of the world, because the whole love of the Father is for Him alone, because He alone is one with God, because the title God may be ascribed to Him alone, He is the only-begotten Son of God. (Theological Dictionary of the New Testament", Gerhard Kittel, Buchsel, 1967, Vol. IV, p 737-741)

MONOGENÊS

BAGD:
"In the Johannine lit[erature] m[onogenês] is used only of Jesus. The mngs. only, unique may be quite adequate for all its occurrences here...But some (e.g., WBauer, Hdb.) prefer to regard m[onogenês] as somewhat heightened in mng. in J and 1J to only-begotten or begotten of the Only One." (Bauer, it will be remembered, believed the Gospel of John was a gnostic text, and hence saw a theology behind John's writing compatible with the creation of the Logos as a semi-divine intermediary between the Monas and the creation with which He could not directly interact).

Louw & Nida: "Pertaining to what is unique in the sense of being the only one of the same kind or class - 'unique, only.'"

Moulton & Milligan: "Literally 'one of a kind,' 'only,' 'unique' (unicus), not 'only-begotten....'"

Grimm/Thayer: "Single of its kind, only, [A.V. only-begotten]." (Note that Thayer's insertion merely cites the KJV translation, which owes considerable debt to the Vulgate of Jerome, who translated monogenês "unigenitus").

NIDNTT: "The only begotten, or only....RSV and NEB render monogenês as 'only.' This meaning is supported by R. E. Brown, The Gospel According to John, Anchor Bible, I, 1966, 13 f., and D. Moody, “God’s Only Son: The Translation of John 3:16 in the Revised Standard Version,” JBL 72, 1953, 213-19. Lit. it means “of a single kind,” and could even be used in this sense of the Phoenix (1 Clem. 25:2). It is only distantly related to gennao, beget. The idea of “only begotten” goes back to Jerome who used unigenitus in the Vulg. to counter the Arian claim that Jesus was not begotten but made."

Newman: "Unique, only."

LSJ: "Only, single" (references John 1:14, the only NT verse cited).

TDNT: defines monogenês as "only begotten," but distinguishes between nouns ending in -genes and adverbs ending in -genês. The former denote the source of the derivation, the latter the nature of the derivation. Thus, the author (Buchsel) concludes that monogenês means "of sole descent." But Pendrick argues strongly against this view:


monogenes is used five times, all in the writings of the apostle John, of Christ as the Son of God; it is translated "only begotten" in Heb 11:17 of the relationship of Isaac to Abraham.

With reference to Christ, the phrase "the only begotten from the Father," John 1:14, RV (see also the marg.), indicates that as the Son of God He was the sole representative of the Being and character of the One who sent Him. In the original the definite article is omitted both before "only begotten" and before "Father," and its absence in each case serves to lay stress upon the characteristics referred to in the terms used. The apostle's object is to demonstrate what sort of glory it was that he and his fellow apostles had seen. That he is not merely making a comparison with earthly relationships is indicated by para, "from." The glory was that of a unique relationship and the word "begotten" does not imply a beginning of His Sonship. It suggests relationship indeed, but must be distinguished from generation as applied to man.

We can only rightly understand the term "the only begotten" when used of the Son, in the sense of unoriginated relationship. "The begetting is not an event of time, however remote, but a fact irrespective of time. The Christ did not become, but necessarily and eternally is the Son. He, a Person, possesses every attribute of pure Godhood. This necessitates eternity, absolute being; in this respect He is not 'after' the Father" (Moule). The expression also suggests the thought of the deepest affection, as in the case of the OT word yachid, variously rendered, "only one," Gen 22:2, 12; "only son," Jer 6:26; Amos 8:10; Zech 12:10; "only beloved," Prov 4:3, and "darling," Ps 22:20, 35:17.

In John 1:18 the clause "the only begotten son, which is in the bosom of the Father," expresses both His eternal union with the Father in the Godhead and the ineffable intimacy and love between them, the Son sharing all the Father's counsels and enjoying all His affections. Another reading is monogenes Theos, "God only-begotten." In John 3:16 the statement, "God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten son," must not be taken to mean that Christ became the only begotten son by incarnation. The value and the greatness of the gift lay in the Sonship of Him who was given. His Sonship was not the effect of His being given. In John 3:18 the phrase "the name of the only begotten son of God" lays stress upon the full revelation of God's character and will, His love and grace, as conveyed in the name of One who, being in a unique relationship to Him, was provided by Him as the object of faith. In 1 John 4:9 the statement "God hath sent His only begotten son into the world" does not mean that God sent out into the world one who at His birth in Bethlehem had become His Son. Cf. the parallel statement, "God sent forth the Spirit of His Son," Gal 4:6, RV, which could not mean that God sent forth One who became His Spirit when He sent Him. (from Vine's Expository Dictionary of Biblical Words, Copyright © 1985, Thomas Nelson Publishers.)

conclusion: Only Begotten Son is Jesus unique identity as the Eternal Son who is God Incarnate. Do not let any unitarian tell you otherwise or explain it away.

hope this helps !!!
@FreeInChrist @Dizerner @Red Baker

Whenever a entire page of scriptures are posted i become suspicious because many times it is about trying to overwhelm the audience with abundance as if that abundance solidifies the proposition.

this does not phase the Holy Spirit and never has and never will

The Bible was written for children to read and understand = JESUS Says so = Matt 18:1-5
At that time the disciples came to Jesus, saying, “Who then is greatest in the kingdom of heaven?”

Then Jesus called a little child to Him, set him in the midst of them, and said, “Assuredly, I say to you, unless you are converted and become as little children, you will by no means enter the kingdom of heaven. Therefore whoever humbles himself as this little child is the greatest in the kingdom of heaven.
Whoever receives one little child like this in My name receives Me.

Here is the little child of faith with the Truth that we must not argue against = Psalm 2:7


I will proclaim the decree
spoken to Me by the LORD:
“You are My Son;

today I have become Your Father.

Psalm 2:7 is a Prophecy = it is NOT a proclamation of current but of FUTURE to Come

We all KNOW the 'WHEN' of the Fulfillment of this Prophecy from Psalm 2:7

John 1:1 - In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was God

Did John 1:1 say that the Son was with God??? = ABSOLUTELY NOT

the Apostle John confirms the 'WHEN' of the Prophecy of Psalm 2:7

John 1:14 - And
the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.

Any deviation from this, however slight, is self-serving in creating a opinion not supported in the Holy Scriptures of Truth.

Is the Son Eternal =
YES
Was the WORD begotten as the Son before John 1:14 = Absolutely NOT
 
Last edited:
Are you saying the Word is not the Son?

Also, I don't think being academic is necessarily a sin.
Words are EXTREMELY IMPORTANT to TRUTH
MOST Especially in the Holy Scriptures

Every word of God is pure;
He is a shield to those who put their trust in Him.
Do not add to His words,
Lest He rebuke you, and you be found a liar
. - Proverbs 30:5-6

“Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets.
I did not come to destroy but to fulfill.
For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away,

one jot or one tittle will by no means pass
from the law till all is fulfilled.

jot /jŏt/

noun​

  1. The smallest bit; iota.
  2. An iota; a point; a tittle; the smallest particle.
tittle /tĭt′l/

noun​

  1. A small diacritic mark, such as an accent, vowel mark, or dot over an i.
  2. The tiniest bit; an iota
 
Last edited:
Scripture describes Jesus as monogenēs, a term that may mean “only begotten” in some passages, such as John 1:14, 18 and 3:16. Now, there’s some dispute about that. Some Bible scholars think the word means “unique” rather than “only begotten.” But I think the older view is right, so that these passages do say that Jesus was begotten by the Father before the world was made and that he was the only one begotten by the Father, the only begotten Son.
 
Back
Top Bottom