The Unconditional Election Debate: An Universalist Perspective

... you can't take real, literal ideas from scripture and call them metaphors,
otherwise, yes, it becomes difficult to distinguish the difference.

I agree that sometimes can be difficult, but that's why God endowed us with reason and embedded in our hearts the basic notions of good and evil.
If a literal interpretation obviously contradicts reason and the universal understanding of good and evil, then we should dig deeper for the spiritual meaning.
 
I share 100% your understanding of "heaven".
Both you and me believe that "heaven" means "spiritual realm where God resides".
But that is not the literal meaning of heaven. If it we understood it literally, then we would conclude that God dwells in the sky (either in the earth atmosphere or in the interstellar space, but not in the ocean or earth crust).

The ancient inspired authors found important to use "heaven" (and not "top of the mountain", for example) because "heaven" is associated with several concepts that "top of the mountain" does not convey so well. Even so, in Exodus, God speaks to Moses in a mountain, as a mountain is the part of earth that is closer to heaven, and therefore, metaphorically represents a connection between the realm of God and the realm of human beings.

I hope this helps to clarify what I meant by "metaphorical".
I never meant that truths revealed through metaphorical language are less real than those revealed in plain language. Both are 100% real... it is the method to convey the truths that is different, and requires from us a different exegetical approach.
OK Pancho.
I can't go on with this.
Of course the bible has all kinds of language in it.
This is why Calvinists always to to the OT for support verses...
because of all the poetic language.
It could be that you know more than I do...like your example of the top of the mountain being heaven.
I never heard of this.
But OK.
 
I agree that sometimes can be difficult, but that's why God endowed us with reason and embedded in our hearts the basic notions of good and evil.
If a literal interpretation obviously contradicts reason and the universal understanding of good and evil, then we should dig deeper for the spiritual meaning.
I don't see any conflict in scripture.
I think scripture is very reasonable when understood properly...
and I mean exegesis vs eisegesis.
 
1. You are asking me why I don't accept as literal terms as "eternal", "everlasting" or "forever and ever" when applied to hell. The answer is that I don't take all words from the Bible literally. You also don't take them all literally, and nobody should take them all literally. Particularly we shouldn't take words literally when they contradict reason and the most basic concepts of God, good, and evil.
Everything in Scripture should be taken literally first, unless there is a compelling reason for not taking it literally. There are many, many places in Scripture where it talks about the suffering in Hell being eternal, everlasting, without end, etc., and there is nothing in Scripture anywhere that gives any hint of the idea that there will be a reprieve, parole, or redemption from Hell at any point. These are not my ideas, they are God's Word to us, and as I said, they should be taken absolutely literally.
2. You say you understand that I want to give those who go to hell a hope of redemption from their suffering. I thank you for that understanding. I personally believe that you and everyone in this Forum also want to give the wicked a hope of redemption.
The wicked have the same hope of redemption that I have. I was wicked also, before I found Jesus.
What is intriguing, then, is why you think God does not want to give them that hope, if God's love, justice and wisdom is infinitely greater than your love, justice and wisdom. So either God does not want it, or He wants but He can't... what takes us to the same intriguing situation. Why an All-Powerful God can't achieve what He wants, without violating free will.
It is not a matter of can't. God is not in the business of giving chances over and over (reincarnation, etc.). He gives ONE chance for us to demonstrate our love for Him. If we demonstrate our love for Him in this one life, then we spend eternity in Heaven with Him. If we demonstrate hatred, or apathy, or contempt, or any other attitude toward Him we will spend eternity in Hell away from Him.
 
Then HE did create them to end in hell...lovely thought...for no stated or known reason and against all that HE has revealed to us of HIS character as LOVE and LIGHT...

The Spirit who convicted me, who brought me to repentance in Christ and to faith in Him as my only Saviour, has intimated to me that He would never do this as HE wants no one to die in hell:

GOD does not take pleasure in the deaths of anyone: Ezekiel 33:11 Say to them, 'As surely as I live, declares the Sovereign LORD, I take NO PLEASURE in the death of the wicked...yet GOD does only that which gives HIM pleasure...so why would HE create people knowing they would end in hell when He has no desire for them to do so and not creating them fulfills HIS desire?

Also, HE wants all people to be saved, 1 Timothy 2:4...who WANTS all people to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth. so whether HE will get this want fulfilled or not, HE obviously did NOT create anyone without the possibility for salvation, ie, foreknown, that is, foreordained (same word), to end hell at creation!
I agree, there is no one who does not have the opportunity to be saved.

But His foreknowledge that they will not accept Him does not put the burden of responsibility for their poor choice on Him.

If I throw a hundred six sided dice, and only keep the ones that come up with six (6) on top, does that make me responsible for the ones that had some other number on top? Does that make me evil for throwing 100, knowing that on average only 16 or 17 would be kept?

Yes, God wants all people to accept Him in Love, and He does not take pleasure in the eternal death of anyone. But NOT everything He does is for His pleasure. Sacrificing Jesus was not pleasurable for Him or for Jesus. Granted, He endured that pain for an even greater pleasure that He could foresee, but your premise that "God does only that which gives HIM pleasure" is false.
 
No sir, I find these verses fulfilled in creation referring first to the creation of all the spirits in HIS image and then to the creation of the physical universe which all the Sons of GOD saw and sang HIS praises, (proving their creation), Job 38:7 but never to our being conceived as men in the world which is called a sowning, a moving from a place of storage to a place of growth, Matt 13:36-39...and since the devil sows too, to sow cannot mean to create.
The universe was created first, then the spirits of mankind (Gen 2:7). The spirits in Job 38:7 are the Angels, not man's spirits. Each man's spirit is made the moment we are conceived.
We were there with HIM and heard HIS first proclamation of the gospel, Col 1:23,
Col 1:23 does not refer back to a time before Creation. The Gospel of Jesus was not proclaimed until after Jesus was born, lived, died, and was resurrected. It was foreshadowed, predicted to come, anticipated, and hoped for, but it was not proclaimed until after it was fulfilled.
and HE responded with love and their election to those who put their faith, their unproven hope, in HIM and HE responded with hate and condemnation for those who put their faith, their unproven hope, in HIS being a liar and therefore a false god, consigning themselves to hell forever. Not by HIS foreknowledge / foreordination but by their own free will choice which HE must not have known they would choose or HE would not have created those individuals because HIS hope was to keep hell empty.
Again, you ignore what Scripture says.
Rom 8:29-30 - "For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brothers and sisters; 30 and these whom He predestined, He also called; and these whom He called, He also justified; and these whom He justified, He also glorified."
Who was predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son? Upon what did He base His decision of who to predestine? His foreknowledge! He chose those who, in free will, chose Him.
 
I deeply respect those who believe in the annihilation of the wicked ones as opposed to their eternal torment.

It is a relevant question in my view. If Immortality is a gift God Gives to mortal men, then how is it HE gives it to mortal men as a punishment, which is what most of this world's religious system promotes. And all men die, the righteous with the wicked. According to Scriptures they would stay dead, like Abraham is still dead, until God resurrects them.

Ecc. 9: 4 For to him that is joined to all the living there is hope: for a living dog is better than a dead lion. 5 For the living know that they shall die: but the dead know not any thing, neither have they any more a reward; for the memory of them is forgotten. 6 Also their love, and their hatred, and their envy, is now perished; neither have they any more a portion for ever in any thing that is done under the sun.

John 5: 28 Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which "all that are in the graves" shall hear his voice, 29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation. "Death" is the damnation, not eternal life, at least according to Scriptures.

Rev. 21: 7 He that overcometh shall inherit all things; and I will be his God, and he shall be my son. 8 But the fearful, and unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars, shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second "death".

Given these and many more Scriptures, I have come to understand, based on the writings of the Bible, that this 2nd Death, is the death in which there is no return, no more resurrections. "Death Everlasting".

It makes far more sense, and there is also some biblical and philosophical support for it.
Certainly, from my perspective, it does not solve all logical issues related to God's justice and mercy, but I see it like a big step in the right direction.

This is certainly a worthy topic to discuss between men. From the Holy Bible's writings, it seems clear that there is death for mortal humans. Since I am one of those men Paul speaks of in Romans 2:7, I am seeking for, from the One True God, "glory and honour and immortality". And this "by patient continuance in God's definition of "well doing", as defined by the Bible. In Faith that His Priest, the Lord's Christ, will advocate between me and His God, and will offer to God on my behalf, a perfect sacrifice for my sins.

I can't say what God chooses to do with others who know about the Bible and the Christ promoted therein but choose not to believe in it. And I am, according to the bible, to be judged by my works, not the works of others.

So for me, I believe God is a merciful and a Just God and is faithful to keep His Promises as promoted in the Holy scriptures, even for a nobody like me. Both His Promise of mercy, and His Promise of judgment. How can He have one without the other?

Heb. 12: 28 Wherefore we receiving a kingdom which cannot be moved, let us have grace, whereby we may serve God acceptably with reverence and godly fear: 29 For our God is a consuming fire.

In this way, I have faith that I and the family God gave me, will be safe from the wicked influences of this world and it's prophesied religious system, by walking in the "Way of the Lord" and putting on the armor of God, as defined and instructed by the God inspired Bible.

Is there another "way"? Is there another "Christ"? There are "many" who profess to know God that believe and promote that there is. But I am always brought back to the Centurian who saw and heard Jesus on the day of His death. Would he not seek to know who this man was? Whose God this man spoke to with His Last Breath? Why would he seek another?

I am this centurion.
 
It is a relevant question in my view. If Immortality is a gift God Gives to mortal men, then how is it HE gives it to mortal men as a punishment, which is what most of this world's religious system promotes. And all men die, the righteous with the wicked. According to Scriptures they would stay dead, like Abraham is still dead, until God resurrects them.

Ecc. 9: 4 For to him that is joined to all the living there is hope: for a living dog is better than a dead lion. 5 For the living know that they shall die: but the dead know not any thing, neither have they any more a reward; for the memory of them is forgotten. 6 Also their love, and their hatred, and their envy, is now perished; neither have they any more a portion for ever in any thing that is done under the sun.

John 5: 28 Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which "all that are in the graves" shall hear his voice, 29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation. "Death" is the damnation, not eternal life, at least according to Scriptures.

Rev. 21: 7 He that overcometh shall inherit all things; and I will be his God, and he shall be my son. 8 But the fearful, and unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars, shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second "death".

Given these and many more Scriptures, I have come to understand, based on the writings of the Bible, that this 2nd Death, is the death in which there is no return, no more resurrections. "Death Everlasting".



This is certainly a worthy topic to discuss between men. From the Holy Bible's writings, it seems clear that there is death for mortal humans. Since I am one of those men Paul speaks of in Romans 2:7, I am seeking for, from the One True God, "glory and honour and immortality". And this "by patient continuance in God's definition of "well doing", as defined by the Bible. In Faith that His Priest, the Lord's Christ, will advocate between me and His God, and will offer to God on my behalf, a perfect sacrifice for my sins.

I can't say what God chooses to do with others who know about the Bible and the Christ promoted therein but choose not to believe in it. And I am, according to the bible, to be judged by my works, not the works of others.

So for me, I believe God is a merciful and a Just God and is faithful to keep His Promises as promoted in the Holy scriptures, even for a nobody like me. Both His Promise of mercy, and His Promise of judgment. How can He have one without the other?

Heb. 12: 28 Wherefore we receiving a kingdom which cannot be moved, let us have grace, whereby we may serve God acceptably with reverence and godly fear: 29 For our God is a consuming fire.

In this way, I have faith that I and the family God gave me, will be safe from the wicked influences of this world and it's prophesied religious system, by walking in the "Way of the Lord" and putting on the armor of God, as defined and instructed by the God inspired Bible.

Is there another "way"? Is there another "Christ"? There are "many" who profess to know God that believe and promote that there is. But I am always brought back to the Centurian who saw and heard Jesus on the day of His death. Would he not seek to know who this man was? Whose God this man spoke to with His Last Breath? Why would he seek another?

I am this centurion.
Can a false christ save a person if they believe in an unbiblical Jesus ? yes or no

Can a false gospel save anyone who believes in a false gospel ? yes or no

Can a false god save anyone who believes in. a false god ? yes or no

Can an idol save anyone who believes in that idol/ idolatry ? yes or no

hope this helps !!!
 
The universe was created first, then the spirits of mankind (Gen 2:7). The spirits in Job 38:7 are the Angels, not man's spirits. Each man's spirit is made the moment we are conceived.
There is nothing in the language of any verse which contradicts the possible interpretation of our pre-conception existence which is only rejected by the interpretation of the language of a verse, not the language itself. In Job 38:7 you interpret Sons of GOD to be restricted to what you believe are the angels, an interpretation you hold by faith, not by any proof as you hint/imply that you do but the actual face value of language says and is therefore more readily interpreted to be read as it is written, ALL the sons of GOD, including me and thee.

And you must also re-interpret the words of GOD from their face value in Ps 9:17 The wicked will RETURN to Sheol—all the nations who forget God. to mean something other than meaning they RETURN to someplace they have come from previously.

Then I also get to remind you of Matt 13:36-39 in which to sow cannot mean to create as the devil does this sowing also....so, what is to sow to mean if not to be used according to its face value meaning of to MOVE from a place of storage to a place of growth???
 
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Again, you ignore what Scripture says.
Again, I only ignore your interpretation of scripture and offer another possibility that does not have any support for blasphemy within it...

Who was predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son? Upon what did He base His decision of who to predestine? His foreknowledge! He chose those who, in free will, chose Him.
The elect were predestined to be conformed to His image, no one else, if they should ever sin.

HE based HIS decision upon their acceptance of HIS first proclamation of HIS deity and gospel to all of creation, Col 1:23, as the truth by faith, that is, by their UNPROVEN HOPE it was the truth (Heb 11:1) as it sounded to them like it was their best chance at a good and happy life.

A new pov that does not have GOD damning some for no reason found in them by not including them in HIS predestination of others to be saved for no reason found in them!
 
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There is nothing in the language of any verse which contradicts the possible interpretation of our pre-conception existence which is only rejected by the interpretation of the language of a verse, not the language itself. In Job 38:7 you interpret Sons of GOD to be restricted to what you believe are the angels, an interpretation you hold by faith, not by any proof as you hint/imply that you do but the actual face value of language says and is therefore more readily interpreted to be read as it is written, ALL the sons of GOD, including me and thee.
The "possible interpretation"? So instead of arguing surety, you argue your "possible interpretation"? We do, however, know that Jesus was the only soul that came from Heaven (the only source of creation) before residing in His human body. No other soul preexisted its residence in its human body.
The whole of Creation had been made in the prior 5 days before God formed the first man's body and into that body breathed his soul, part of God's own Spirit, making man a living soul in God's image. There is no indication whatsoever that He formed Adam's soul before that moment, and no indication either that He formed all souls at that or some previous moment.
And you must also re-interpret the words of GOD from their face value in Ps 9:17 The wicked will RETURN to Sheol—all the nations who forget God. to mean something other than meaning they RETURN to someplace they have come from previously.
The word translated "return" can just as easily mean "turn toward". You see in this a "return" to Sheol as if that is where we originated. But it is more accurately understood to be that those who forget God will be turned from life to death and into Sheol.
Then I also get to remind you of Matt 13:36-39 in which to sow cannot mean to create as the devil does this sowing also....so, what is to sow to mean if not to be used according to its face value meaning of to MOVE from a place of storage to a place of growth???
The parable is not about the planting of the seeds, but about the harvest of them. Satan can no more create or move God's seeds (the souls of man) than you or I can. He can only manipulate us. He does not plant the souls, but the spirit of evil within our souls.
 
The elect were predestined to be conformed to His image, no one else, if they should ever sin.
"If they should ever sin"? Everyone sins. There is none righteous, not even one.
HE based HIS decision upon their acceptance of HIS first proclamation of HIS deity and gospel to all of creation, Col 1:23,
"His first proclamation of His deity"? There is not a single soul that has EVER accepted His first proclamation of His deity without rebellion (Rom 1:20-21).
as the truth by faith, that is, by their UNPROVEN HOPE it was the truth (Heb 11:1) as it sounded to them like it was their best chance at a good and happy life.

A new pov that does not have GOD damning some for no reason found in them by not including them in HIS predestination of others to be saved for no reason found in them!
The only pov that matters is God's pov, which He gives us in His Scriptures. All have sinned (ignored His power and authority over them) and prostituted themselves with other gods. instead of making God foremost in their hearts.
 
Can a false christ save a person if they believe in an unbiblical Jesus ? yes or no

Can a false gospel save anyone who believes in a false gospel ? yes or no

Can a false god save anyone who believes in. a false god ? yes or no

Can an idol save anyone who believes in that idol/ idolatry ? yes or no

hope this helps !!!

Dear civic and friends all:

A false God, a false Christ, and a false gospel cannot save, because cannot make the violent meek, or the lustful pure, or the greedy generous.
In contrast, The True and Only God, and His True Christ, and the True Gospel can save, because they can do all these things.

So, although the question What do @Studyman, @Doug Brents and Pancho Frijoles believe about X? is interesting, it is not the key question of salvation.
The key question for salvation is Have the beliefs of @Studyman @Doug Brents and Pancho Frijoles led them to God so that He changes their lives?

@Doug Brents believes that the wicked will burn forever.
@Studyman believes that the wicked will be eliminated, annihilated.
Pancho Frijoles believes that the wicked will suffer in order to learn and repent.

How their beliefs affect their capacity to love God and other people?
I don't think that neither Doug nor Studyman love God and treat me with respect out of fear of either everlasting torture or annihilation.
And when Pancho Frijoles sins, I don't think he sins because he's confident that, although he will suffer, God will rescue him somehow.

None of the three wants hell, whatever the concept they have of it. The three of them want the presence of God.
 
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Everything in Scripture should be taken literally first, unless there is a compelling reason for not taking it literally.
Let me share with you what I find to be two compelling reasons for not taking those words literally

1. The character of God, who reveals Himself in the Bible, and through reason and the Spirit, with attributes like mercy, love and justice, that are intelligible to man (otherwise it would not be revelation).
2. The metaphorical use of the associated language within the passage. If the terms "day and night" or "everlasting" are pronounced in direct association with other metaphors, why shouldn't we take them as metaphorical as well? Here are some of those metaphors:

In regard to the words of Jesus
  • Should we take as literal that the wicked will be thrown to an open dump or landfill outside Jerusalem? This what Jesus told hell was. The Valley Hinnom, the Gehenna.
  • Should we take as literal that, in order to avoid ending up in that landfill outside Jerusalem, we should cut off our eyes or hands to avoid sinning?

In regard to the Book of Revelation
  • Should we take as literal that people are thrown to a lake of fire, burning with brimstone?
  • Should we take as literal that there will be immortal worms eating the flesh of the wicked?
  • Should we take as literal that smoke will ascend forever from the combustion of people who are not consumed?
 
Let me share with you what I find to be two compelling reasons for not taking those words literally

1. The character of God, who reveals Himself in the Bible, and through reason and the Spirit, with attributes like mercy, love and justice, that are intelligible to man (otherwise it would not be revelation).
The Character of God is that He cannot abide evil, and He cannot lie. He has said that He will send those who are evil to a place where He, and His glory, and His power are not. And that this will be an unending, eternal, ever-lasting, day and night forever banishment.
2. The metaphorical use of the associated language within the passage. If the terms "day and night" or "everlasting" are pronounced in direct association with other metaphors, why shouldn't we take them as metaphorical as well? Here are some of those metaphors:

In regard to the words of Jesus
  • Should we take as literal that the wicked will be thrown to an open dump or landfill outside Jerusalem? This what Jesus told hell was. The Valley Hinnom, the Gehenna.
Yes, this is metaphorical, in that it was something that the people there understood clearly, but was amplified to the nth degree. It is impossible for humans to understand the spiritual world except in terms of the physical world. Paul and John try to describe Heaven, but their language is completely inadequate to the task because they must relate it to what we already know.
  • Should we take as literal that, in order to avoid ending up in that landfill outside Jerusalem, we should cut off our eyes or hands to avoid sinning?
Most certainly, that is the picture that Jesus is painting. He does not call us to do so, but to be willing to do so if that were what it took to enter Heaven and avoid Hell.
In regard to the Book of Revelation
  • Should we take as literal that people are thrown to a lake of fire, burning with brimstone?
What is a "lake of fire"? It is not a large area that causes constant pain, torment, destruction, and misery. Yes, we should take that literally.
  • Should we take as literal that there will be immortal worms eating the flesh of the wicked?
Again, an image of pain, terror, torment. Worms and maggots eat only dead flesh, thereby cleansing the living flesh of disease and wounds. But in Hell, there will be nothing but dead and dying "flesh", and the "worms" (whatever they may really be) will cause pain, terror, and torment without end.
  • Should we take as literal that smoke will ascend forever from the combustion of people who are not consumed?
Indeed, just as the bush that attracted Moses burned but was not consumed.
 
The Character of God is that He cannot abide evil, and He cannot lie.
Certainly God cannot abide evil. Then, how a perfectly loving and just God deals with evil ? What solution does He give to that problem?
He has said that He will send those who are evil to a place where He, and His glory, and His power are not. And that this will be an unending, eternal, ever-lasting, day and night forever banishment.
Do you think that there is place where He, His glory and His power are not?
If there is no such a place now, as we talk, when His victory is still ongoing, how do you think there will be such a place once everything is over, and He emerges victorious?
According to the Scriptures, God's final victory is being all in all.

Yes, this is metaphorical...

Most certainly, that is the picture that Jesus is painting....

Again, an image of pain, terror, torment.
Well, in the same way that you give these words a symbolic meaning, I take "everlasting" as figurative language.
(By the way, I didn't understand why you took "worms" and "landfill outside Jerusalem" as metaphorical, but fire, brimstone and smoke as literal. Can you explain?)

To me, everlasting means that nothing, out of men's remedies, can mitigate or solve the state of men. It is not a temporary suffering that will fade away if given enough time, or money, or attention, or drugs, or even suicide... any of the usual false remedies that men seek to alleviate their spiritual despair.

The parallel of everlasting torment is eternal life. "Eternal" means that nothing can take us away from our love for God and His Christ, whether money, pleasures, fear, popularity, ambitions, etc. Eternal life is not a temporary caprice or enthusiasm that will fade away.
 
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This is an illustration of the place where Jesus said that the wicked will end. Do we take it as literal or symbolic?
If we take as metaphor Jerusalem's landfill or open dump, and the immortal worms, why wouldn't we take as a metaphor the lake of fire and brimstone?

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Certainly God cannot abide evil. Then, how a perfectly loving and just God deals with evil ? What solution does He give to that problem?
He exiles evil away from Himself, forever.
Do you think that there is place where He, His glory and His power are not?
Absolutely there is, or will be, a place where He and the glory of His power are not. Does it exist now? I don't know, but it will by the time Judgement comes.
If there is no such a place now, as we talk, when His victory is still ongoing, how do you think there will be such a place once everything is over, and He emerges victorious?
Because He told us that it would be there at that time.
According to the Scriptures, God's final victory is being all in all.
And your interpretation of that phrase means that He will save every soul, regardless of their sin or their lack of love and commitment to God?
Well, in the same way that you give these words a symbolic meaning, I take "everlasting" as figurative language.
(By the way, I didn't understand why you took "worms" and "landfill outside Jerusalem" as metaphorical, but fire, brimstone and smoke as literal. Can you explain?)
They may not be literal, but are figurative of the pain, suffering, torment, terror, etc. that will be experienced there.
To me, everlasting means that nothing, out of men's remedies, can mitigate or solve the state of men. It is not a temporary suffering that will fade away if given enough time, or money, or attention, or drugs, or even suicide... any of the usual false remedies that men seek to alleviate their spiritual despair.
You are still applying these things to this life. "Time, or money, or attention, or drugs, or even suicide..." are all part of this world, but have no relevance to the spiritual world.
The parallel of everlasting torment is eternal life. "Eternal" means that nothing can take us away from our love for God and His Christ, whether money, pleasures, fear, popularity, ambitions, etc. Eternal life is not a temporary caprice or enthusiasm that will fade away.
If the parallel of eternal torment is eternal life, and eternal life cannot be taken away, nor will it fade away, or be temporary, then what makes you think that eternal torment will be taken away, fade away, or be temporary? Let's be consistent with our understanding here. If eternal means eternal in one case, then it means the same in the other as well. You don't get eternal reward without also having eternal punishment.
 
This is an illustration of the place where Jesus said that the wicked will end. Do we take it as literal or symbolic?
If we take as metaphor Jerusalem's landfill or open dump, and the immortal worms, why wouldn't we take as a metaphor the lake of fire and brimstone?

View attachment 1575
We take it like any thing/

Babylon was told to be a head of God. Now it was not a literal head of gold. but the head of God represented a literal kingdom. and that kingdom fulfilled what was said about it, including her demise by hands of media and persians.
 
And your interpretation of that phrase means that He will save every soul, regardless of their sin or their lack of love and commitment to God?
No, absolutely no.
God will save a soul who repents, just as happens in this life.
The only difference between your understanding and my understanding is the duration of God's action.
You believe that once the heart ceases pumping blood to the brain, God ceases being interested in that person. I believe that God's interest for that person is eternal. Even if that person is unfaithful, God is still faithful, because He cannot betray his own nature. (2 Timothy 2:13)

They may not be literal, but are figurative of the pain, suffering, torment, terror, etc. that will be experienced there.
Yes, I agree. In the same sense, I believe that "everlasting" is figurative of the inescapable nature of the suffering by human means.
You are still applying these things to this life. "Time, or money, or attention, or drugs, or even suicide..." are all part of this world, but have no relevance to the spiritual world.
That's exactly the tragedy of hell in the afterlife.
Here, on earth, people resort to money, popularity, sex, drugs, videogames to mitigate or evade from the reality of their suffering. In the afterlife, without these "aspirins" that pertain to the material world, what can mitigate their suffering? Nothing.
That's why they perceive it as a "day and night" suffering.
If the parallel of eternal torment is eternal life, and eternal life cannot be taken away, nor will it fade away, or be temporary, then what makes you think that eternal torment will be taken away, fade away, or be temporary? Let's be consistent with our understanding here. If eternal means eternal in one case, then it means the same in the other as well. You don't get eternal reward without also having eternal punishment.
"Eternal" has the same meaning for both eternal life and eternal torment.
It not about chronological duration (souls are immortal anyway, and bodies are mortal anyway).
It is about the fact that such life or such torment cannot end by human means.

When we are in Christ, no threat or temptation created by humans can take us away from the love of Christ.
When we are not in Christ, no pleasure or alleviation created by humans can take us away from our suffering.
 
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