The Shema

[Matthias]

“The New Testament writers are really quite clear at this point. Jesus is not the God of Israel. He is not the Father. He is not Yahweh.”

(James D.G. Dunn, Did The First Christians Worship Jesus?, p. 142)

The New Testament writers (with the exception of Luke) were, like Jesus, Jews.

“For the Jew ‘God‘ is the Father in heaven.” - Raymond E. Brown

For the Jew, including Jesus, the God of Israel - Yahweh - is the Father.

Jesus isn’t the Father -> Jesus is not Yahweh.

That’s Jewish monotheism.

Trinitarianism teaches something very different from that.

 

[Matthias]

What happens when scripture is read with a non-Jewish (i.e. trinitarian) theology?

Exactly what Gregory of Nyssa said happened - “destroying the heresy [of Jewish monotheism]”; “the Jewish dogma is destroyed.”

”Jesus was a first century Jewish monotheist.” - N.T. Wright

When scripture is read with a non-Jewish theology the Jewish monotheism, the Jewish dogma, of Jesus is destroyed.

That destruction has consequences.

 

[101G]

So if only the Father is God, then why did the Biblical authors need to DISTINGUISH the phrase, "God" with "the Father", instead of simply saying "God" as they did in the OT?
Why wasn't "God" sufficient?
Why the need for "God the Father"?

because of the ECHAD, meaning God to come in Flesh as the Son. did they not acknowledge God as Father in the OT? Isaiah 63:16 "Doubtless thou art our father, though Abraham be ignorant of us, and Israel acknowledge us not: thou, O LORD, art our father, our redeemer; thy name is from everlasting."

in the Shema, is not the "LORD" our God, whois Father?. also in the OT it is clear there is only "ONE" Father. Malachi 2:10 "Have we not all one father? hath not one God created us? why do we deal treacherously every man against his brother, by profaning the covenant of our fathers?" ....... Hmmmmmm God the Father created us?

101G.