Deuteronomy 4:7-10 — Israel’s Special Calling:
The passage you referenced from Deuteronomy emphasizes that Israel was to be a nation that draws near to God. God’s law was intended to bring them closer to Him, showing the world that Israel was special and unique in receiving God's revelation. In verse 10, God’s intent was to make them learn to fear Him, teaching them obedience to His commands so that the covenant relationship would be continually reinforced.
How is that any different than Paul's teaching.
2 Tim. 3: 16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 17 That the man of God "may be perfect", throughly furnished unto all good works.
Rom. 6: 15 What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, (Dead in trespasses and sins) but under grace? (Alive to serve the Living God) God forbid. (That means No!)
16 Know ye not, that to whom ye yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants ye are to whom ye obey; whether of sin "unto death", or of obedience "unto righteousness"?
Or Jesus Teaching.
Matt. 4: 4 But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.
Matt. 5: 48 Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.
Can you not see that according to what is actually written in scriptures, God's Law is intended to bring Abraham closer to HIM, Caleb closer to Him, Zacharias closer to Him, and here we can see His Law also was intended to bring Paul closer to Him.
However, while Israel was called to obey, it’s crucial to note that the law itself was never designed as the ultimate means of salvation. The law could not justify; it only pointed to the need for grace.
This is true, the Law can't take away sins, it only defines sin, so men can strive against them.
You are using Paul's Words to justify sin. Paul's message here was not for men to stop obeying God.This is clearly articulated in Romans 3:20, which states, “For by the works of the law no human being will be justified in His sight.”
If you will answer just 2 questions honestly, you will prove to yourself that you are not understanding Paul's teaching in Romans 3.
Here is the first question I would ask and see if you are willing to answer.
"In the Old (Levitical) Priesthood, when a man sinned, what did the LAW, given by God to Moses, require this man to do?"
You can answer with Moses own words if you would like. (I'll give you a hint, Lev. 4)
And the second question, "When Jesus ran the money changers out of the Temple, what were they selling, and what was their purpose?
Most preachers, who are here to promote a specific religious sect or business, refuse to answer these 2 simple questions which perfectly explain Paul's teaching concerning the Pharisees who had the Oracles of God but didn't believe them. I truly hope you are willing to engage in an honest discussion about this chapter, by answering these 2 easy questions..
The law pointed to sin (Rom. 7:7), showing humanity their inability to perfectly obey.
Yes, without God's Law, we cannot become the New Man, created after God in righteousness and true holiness, as God's Law defines righteousness and Holiness. I reject your religious philosophy that God creates Laws for men to walk in, but withholds from them the capacity to walk in them, then lies to men by telling them they can walk in them, then slaughters them by the thousands when they refuse to walk in them.
This popular religious philosophy, promoted by this world's religious system, is an insidious lie, and a wicked judgment against God.
Caleb’s Faithfulness and Obedience:
I agree with your example of Caleb and how his obedience was acknowledged by God (Num. 14:24). Caleb demonstrated a spirit of faithfulness to God, trusting in His promises. However, I would caution against equating Caleb’s obedience with perfect sinlessness.
I didn't Johann. I said the exact opposite. Show me in any of my posts where I said or even implied that Caleb was perfectly sinless. I said the opposite, that we know Caleb sinned, please read my post. It is very frustrating when religious men create a strawman out of thin air, and then argue against it as if I said or even implied such a thing.
What I know about Caleb, is that HE Loved the Lord his God with all his heart, with all his soul and with all his might. And in this short life, here today, gone tomorrow, this is the whole duty of men, according to Scriptures.
The Bible recognizes that all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God (Rom. 3:23). The key difference between Caleb and others was his response to God's call, his faith and obedience, and his trust in God’s power over the circumstances (cf. Num. 13:30). While Caleb was faithful, he still needed the atoning work provided through the priesthood and sacrifices for sins (Heb. 9:7).
That is exactly what my post said, almost word for word.
The Role of the Priesthood:
You raise an important point about the priesthood and its role in the Old Covenant. The priests, after the order of Aaron, served as intermediaries, offering sacrifices for sin on behalf of the people. The atonement they provided was temporary and insufficient for permanent reconciliation.
This is foolishness my friend. Davids, Shadrack's, Calebs sin was forgiven. God isn't going to raise them again and have them offer the Blood of Jesus for their sins. Their place in God's Kingdom is permanent. They have been reconciled to God, and their atonement provided for. Where is the Scripture that teaches Caleb, David, Jeremiah, Meshak and others only received "Temporary reconciliation"? Or that their atonement was only temporary and insufficient?
Heb. 9: 13 For if the blood of bulls and of goats, and the ashes of an heifer sprinkling the unclean, sanctifieth to the purifying of the flesh:
14 How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God, purge your conscience from dead works "to serve the living God"?
Caleb, David, Abednego were cleansed, their flesh sanctified. Where is the teaching from scriptures which say Caleb's sanctification was only temporary?
This is why Hebrews 9:6-10 emphasizes that the Old Covenant priesthood could not bring the people into the true presence of God- it pointed forward to something greater.
Yes, it pointed to something better, but it is simply false to say Caleb, Joshua, Elijah, or even Rehab, wasn't brought into the true presence of God through the Levitical Priesthood.
"And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ"
Why was there a need of "another Priesthood"?
Should we not accept god's answer for this question?
Mal. 2: 1 And now, O ye priests, this commandment is for you. 2 If ye will not hear, and if ye will not lay it to heart, to give glory unto my name, saith the LORD of hosts, I will even send a curse upon you, and I will curse your blessings: yea, I have cursed them already, because ye do not lay it to heart. 3 Behold, I will corrupt your seed, and spread dung upon your faces, even the dung of your solemn feasts; and one shall take you away with it. 4 And ye shall know that I have sent this commandment unto you, that my covenant might be with Levi, saith the LORD of hosts. 5 My covenant was with him of life and peace; and I gave them to him for the fear wherewith he feared me, and was afraid before my name. (Ex. 32) 6 The law of truth was in his mouth, and iniquity was not found in his lips: he walked with me in peace and equity, and did turn many away from iniquity. 7 For the priest's lips should keep knowledge, and they should seek the law at his mouth: for he is the messenger of the LORD of hosts.
8 But ye are departed out of the way; ye have caused "many" to stumble at the law; ye have corrupted "the covenant of Levi", saith the LORD of hosts. 9 Therefore have I also made you contemptible and base before all the people, according as ye have not kept my ways, but have been partial in the law.
And what does Heb. 8 say about this Covenant.
7 For if that first covenant had been faultless, then "should no place have been sought for the second". 8 For finding fault with them, (Priests who corrupted themselves, and led God's people astray) he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:
Now Johann, how is this not Truth, according to Scriptures?
The New Covenant establishes a better priesthood through Jesus Christ, the eternal High Priest (Heb. 7:24-25), who offered Himself once for all (Heb. 9:26-28). The work of Jesus as the ultimate high priest fulfills the Old Covenant sacrifices and establishes a permanent reconciliation between God and humanity.
This is mostly true, accept it is not true that Abraham, Caleb, David didn't receive "permanent reconciliation".
In conclusion, while I recognize your emphasis on God's mercy and the role of obedience under the Old Covenant, the key difference in the New Covenant is that it is not based on works of the law but on grace through faith in Jesus Christ.
It was never based on the sacrificial "Works of the Law" the Pharisees were still promoting in Romans 3. It was always based on men turning to God, and Loving Him with all their heart, with all their soul and with all their mind. That part has remained the same from Adam and Eve to the present day. The only thing that changed, according to what is actually written, was the manner in which God's Laws are received, and the manner in which forgiveness for transgressing God's laws are provided for.
Of course, to accept these truths, would nullify the need for this world's religious businesses who compete with each other for contributing members. In the same way this same truth, nullified the need to purchase salvation from the religious businesses of this world that existed in Jesus' Time. So these truths will not be received by "many" as Jesus Prophesied.
My hope is that you might step back and consider what is actually written, and challenge the "many" who come in Christ's Name, but are not "doers" of His Sayings.
The New Covenant is God’s gift of salvation, fulfilled in Christ, which goes beyond the law and works-based righteousness, offering eternal atonement for all who believe.
The Old Covenant indeed pointed to the need for atonement and obedience, but it also highlighted the need for God’s grace, which would ultimately be fulfilled in the person and work of Jesus Christ.
We can go deeper should you wish.
The Jesus of the Bible said in the Last Book of the NT.
Rev. 22: 12 And, behold, I come quickly; and my reward is with me, to give every man "according as his work shall be". 13 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last. 14 Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may "have right" to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city.
And yet, if I believe in this Jesus, I am accused by this world's religious system of promoting a "Works based" righteousness, and am demeaned and ridiculed as denying the Christ.
I wish you would consider what is written, and perhaps even answer my easy to answer questions. But such a discussion can be rarely had on this forum, as men are here to justify their specific religious sect and philosophy, as opposed to examine and honestly discuss what is actually written.
Nevertheless, someone one might also see the holes and hypocrisy in this world's religious system and might consider. It is my wish that they do.