Replacement Theology: What It Is and Why It Matters for Christians

[jeremiah1five]

Which is why Paul said that by grace are you saved through faith, and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God, not by works, lest any man shouldst boast. So no, there is nothing connected to the grace or faith. Salvation is by grace alone, through faith alone, in Christ alone, for the glory of God alone. And this is found in scripture alone. And here, Paul clearly states it is the gift of God.

The Mosaic Covenant sets down salvation. The Ceremonial Law is given to Israel to foreshadow the salvation of the Lord. The animals that were sacrificed every year on Passover although temporary laid out how God was going to save His people through substitutionary sacrifice and it was the plan of God, and it didn't include faith. This is what God was going to do despite faith. He sent His Son as substitute for the animals and once this was accomplished on the cross then Israel was saved. That's it. There is nothing in the Ceremonial Law that says Jesus was going to die but it won't become effective until 'someone' expresses faith in order to be saved. This theology means that on the day Jesus died He didn't save anyone. But that's not what the whole instruction of the Ceremonial Law rests on.

26 And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:
27 For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins. Romans 11:25–27.

Verse 27 explains what God was going to do to save Israel. "This is my covenant unto them when I shall take away their sins." There is no "faith" mentioned. There is no "you must believe the gospel." There is no requirement that Israel must do something in order to be saved. Salvation is OF THE LORD. Plain and simple. But men like to add to the salvation that is OF THE LORD. This salvation that is OF THE LORD explains what God was going to do. It's His covenant. It's His Promises. And Jesus fulfilled the [Ceremonial] Law. There was nothing that men were required to do to complete the salvation that is OF THE LORD. Jesus Himself said, "It is finished!" God sent His own Son to Israel in order to take upon Himself the sins of Israel as was prophesied and once Jesus resurrected from the grave the work Jesus accomplished was "Finished." That's it. There is nothing men must do to add to Jesus' finished work.

Now, did God want Israel to trust Him? Yes. But it was all within the construct of the covenant itself. Did God want Israel to believe that Jesus was their salvation? Yes. But faith was not part of that salvation. Men couldn't save themselves. God did not require them to "have faith" after Israel was saved in order to be saved. This is what the Law taught Israel. It - the Law - contains everything that God required for Israel to live perfect, holy lives. The Scripture - including the Moral Law, the Social Law, and the Ceremonial Law - is as Saul said, [was] for "instruction in righteousness so that the man of God is perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works." But the Law didn't save them. God did.

Um, that is why Paul spent Galatians saying to get out from under the Law, because the Law is a Law of death. If you break one Law you are guilty of breaking all of the Law. Jesus perfectly kept the Law, because if He did not, it would first of all prove He wasn't who He claimed to be, and secondly, He couldn't be our sacrifice for sins, He would be too busy dying for His own.

Saul said all that to them while they tried to "keep the Law" in order to be saved. It wasn't necessary. God already saved them. The cross was behind them. Israel was already saved. And in time God began to birth "new lives" as the days, weeks, months, and years moved on. Jesus was already resurrected and ascended to heaven. The work Jesus performed had already been "Finished!" There was NOTHING for Israel to do.

2 But unto you that fear my name shall the Sun of righteousness arise
With healing in his wings;
And ye shall go forth, and grow up as calves of the stall.
3 And ye shall tread down the wicked;
For they shall be ashes under the soles of your feet
In the day that I shall do this, saith the LORD of hosts.
Malachi 4:2–3.

And approximately 400 years later God did this.

If you are teaching that men "must have faith in order to be saved" then you are teaching that on the day Jesus died He saved NO ONE. Think about that for a second. Jesus on the cross said, "It is finished!" Jesus died to save Israel and He died on the cross to accomplish that goal. The salvation OF THE JEWS was "Finished!" Israel IS SAVED. Now here comes people like you that add to salvation by saying "[one] must have faith in order to be saved." What for? Israel is already saved. The thing that is confusing you is the false teaching that non-Hebrew Gentiles can or have been saved. Get Gentiles out of the Lord's salvation and focus yourself on Israel alone. You quote Ephesians 2:8-9 and here it is:

8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
9 Not of works, lest any man should boast. Ephesians 2:8–9.

Saul wrote this letter to Jews and Jewish believers of The Way in Ephesus around AD 60-62. He was in prison at the time. But in AD 30-33 Jesus died on the cross. Saul's letter to Ephesus was written around 30 years later. Now tell me, When Jesus was on the cross and He said, "It is finished!" and died did Jesus save anyone that day? If you add to the Bible that 30 years later, and for us two thousand years later, that "one must have faith in order to be saved", then you are saying that on the day Jesus died and from the cross He says, "It is Finished!" He saved no one on the day He died because it [salvation] doesn't become effective until one later exerts faith to be saved. That's YOUR position. And that position is not supported by the Bible.

My position, however, is that on the day Jesus died He said, "It is Finished!" and then He died, and on that day He saved 'someone' that day. He didn't die to make salvation possible if one would later 'believe', no, He died on the cross and actually saved 'someone' the day He died. Who did He save?
He saved Israel.

26 And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:
27 For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins. Romans 11:26–27.

Now, the question is, "Did God take away their sins (on the day Jesus died)", or did He take away their sins the moment one expresses faith in Jesus and becomes born-again?" which is what you believe.

Abraham was a Hebrew. The reasons Gentiles were circumcised was to become proselytes. Paul was teaching that in Christ, there is no need to proselytize.

You are very mistaken. All Jews knew Moses and the prophets never said anything about non-Hebrew Gentiles being circumcised let alone made inheritors of Abraham's Promises nor that they would be saved. And no Jew would ever circumcise a non-Hebrew Gentile or compel them to obey the Law of Moses. There is where you error begins. You take what God has Promised Abraham and his seed and insert Gentiles and confuse the issue. And you can't provide any Scripture that is in the Old Testament that says Gentiles would be circumcised and that salvation is of the Gentiles. Where does God or Jesus say that Gentiles would become saved, and heirs of the Abraham Promises.

The Law is for Israel, as the Mosaic Covenant. It is not for the Gentiles. It does show us what God's holiness looks like, imperfectly of course, for in order to meet God's standard, one must perfectly keep all 613 laws. And the scriptures they had included the prophets... all of them.

"11 For the grace of God has appeared, [f]bringing salvation to all men, 12 [g]instructing us to deny ungodliness and worldly desires and to live sensibly, righteously and godly in the present age, 13 looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of [h]our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus, 14 who gave Himself for us to redeem us from every lawless deed, and to purify for Himself a people for His own possession, zealous for good deeds."

Text without context is a pretext.

It should be interpreted correctly, which pushes for faith not the Law.
Galatians 2:
"15 “We are Jews by nature and not sinners from among the Gentiles; 16 nevertheless knowing that a man is not justified by the works of [n]the Law but through faith in Christ Jesus, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, so that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of [o]the Law; since by the works of [p]the Law no [q]flesh will be justified. "

Paul was saying not to live under the Law. Salvation is by faith, not the works of the Law. As Paul Himself said, by the works of the law, no flesh will be justified. That is, by the works of the law, all flesh is damned. Also, Paul was not a prophet. So there is that. He was an apostle, a minister of the gospel.

Here is more clear writing of Paul:
"17 But if, while seeking to be justified in Christ, we ourselves have also been found sinners, is Christ then a minister of sin? May it never be! 18 For if I rebuild what I have once destroyed, I prove myself to be a transgressor. 19 For through [r]the Law I died to the Law, so that I might live to God. 20 I have been crucified with Christ; and it is no longer I who live, but Christ lives in me; and [t]the life which I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave Himself up for me. 21 I do not nullify the grace of God, for if righteousness comes through the Law, then Christ died needlessly.”

And a bit more (quite a bit) from Galatians 3
"You foolish Galatians, who has bewitched you, before whose eyes Jesus Christ was publicly portrayed as crucified? 2 This is the only thing I want to find out from you: did you receive the Spirit by the works of the Law, or by [c]hearing with faith? 3 Are you so foolish? Having begun [d]by the Spirit, are you now [e]being perfected by the flesh? 4 Did you [f]suffer so many things in vain—if indeed it was in vain? 5 So then, does He who provides you with the Spirit and works [g]miracles among you, do it by the works of [h]the Law, or by hearing with faith?

6 [j]Even so Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness. 7 Therefore, [k]be sure that it is those who are of faith who are sons of Abraham. 8 The Scripture, foreseeing that God [l]would justify the [m]Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, “All the nations will be blessed in you.” 9 So then those who are of faith are blessed with [n]Abraham, the believer.

10 For as many as are of the works of [o]the Law are under a curse; for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who does not abide by all things written in the book of the law, to perform them.” 11 Now that no one is justified [p]by [q]the Law before God is evident; for, “[r]The righteous man shall live by faith.” 12 However, the Law is not [t]of faith; on the contrary, “He who practices them shall live by them.” 13 Christ redeemed us from the curse of the Law, having become a curse for us—for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who hangs on a [v]tree”— 14 in order that in Christ Jesus the blessing of Abraham might [w]come to the Gentiles, so that we would receive the promise of the Spirit through faith."

There is a lot more of this in Galatians. A lot more.

You can't produce any Scripture from the Hebrew Bible that Gentiles would have to be circumcised in order to be saved nor can you produce any Scripture in the Hebrew Bible that Gentiles would become saved, and heirs of the Abraham Promises.

You correctly say the Law of Moses was for Israel and that Gentiles are not nor have they ever been under the Law, and then you add Gentiles into the Jewish covenants by misinterpreting what Saul says about "one must have faith to be saved" when Jesus from His cross said, "It is Finished!" meaning that Israel is already saved as prophesied by the Prophets and Jesus Himself. On top of that you say Gentiles were never under the Law but that one has to have faith in Jesus in order to be saved. By adding Gentiles into the Hebrew salvation, you teach Jesus changed the Law to include Gentiles when Jesus Himself said "I came not to destroy the Law" meaning the Law can't be changed nor added to on the whims of certain people.

If the Law of Moses was only for the Jews and the yearly sacrifices of animals and their blood sprinkled on the people, on the book of the covenant and the Mercy Seat on the Ark of the Covenant, then when it came time for Jesus to sacrifice Himself for the sins of the children of Israel "once and for all" you add Gentiles in the salvation [that is] of the Jews by saying that only by faith can one be saved, thus nullifying Jesus' work on the cross when He said, "It is Finished!"