ONe problem, Jeremiah1five believes all Greeks/Gentiles (non-Hebrew) are going to hell, no exceptions. Salvation is of the Jews, which is the same as saying, salvation is FROM the Jews. Paul said salvation is first to the Jews, then the Greeks/Gentiles. It is the same as when Jesus said it is bad to give the children's bread to the puppy dogs (proper translation of the greek word), and the woman said, those puppy dogs eat the crumbs that fall from the table. (Puppy dogs speaking of non-Hebrew Gentiles.) In this way salvation is for the whole world, but started with the Jews. That is exactly what you see in Acts. Pentecost was to the Jews, and non-Hebrew Gentile PROSELYTES. (That being a key word.) The receipt of the Holy Spirit by those of the upper room inaugurated the Jewish believers in Christ into the church. The Peter went to the Gentiles with Cornelius. All were non-Hebrew Gentiles, no matter what Jeremiah1five says. What did God do first? God had to have Peter overcome his internal beliefs/thoughts on the un-circumcised (non-Hebrew Gentiles) before sending Peter to speak to them. They received the Holy Spirit as Peter was speaking, inaugurating the non-Hebrew Gentiles into the church. They too have access to God by the same Spirit, as Peter basically put it. So the church is united, and one. Then came the Samaritans, however, scripture does not record that they spoke in tongues. Could it be because, since they were technically Jews, they were already considered part of the church? Then John disciples received the Holy Spirit and spoke in tongues, showing that they to, of John the Baptist's baptism, were part of the church. Everyone represented. And it all came from... the Jews.
Those who teach replacement theology point to the declining Jewish membership in churches, but that doesn't point to anything other than Paul's partial blindness that is upon Israel. There is no such partial blindness on the Gentiles. However, that partial blindness is only for a time, after which it will be removed, and ALL Israel (well, those who are still alive) will be saved. Which Paul says is like life from the dead, such does he see Israel's condition. It's like Israel is dead, but there will come that day when, miraculously life will come to Israel, when the giver of life reconciles with His wayward people. Paul puts it in such strong words and emotion. One can almost visualize it, it is so emphatic.
Antisemitism came into the church do to what the Jews had done to the Christians. (Jewish and non-Hebrew Gentile Christians). -I use Christians for what it came to mean, followers of Christ. All the Jews had to do was say that Christianity (the Way, as Josephus spoke of it) was a branch of Judaism. That's it. That is all they had to do. However, they refused, and as such "the Way" was an illegal religion in the Roman Empire, and down came the persecution. So some people in the church didn't really like the Jews. No real surprise from a worldly perspective, but no one should ever say that everyone in the church was saved, nor that everyone in the church was perfect. These kinds of thought poisoned the church against the Jews and it persisted for a very long time. All Paul told the non-Hebrew Gentiles was that the Jews were their enemies for the sake of the gospel. That is all. He never said that they are our enemies as people, or that they should be hated. Basically that they would be against believers because of the gospel. I would say that "for the sake of the gospel" is related to how Paul said that Israel rejected the gospel, and so the gospel went out to the non-Jewish Gentiles, and once the fulness of the Gentiles has come it, it will circle back to the JEws, and thus all Israel will be saved. He has locked up all in disobedience that He might have mercy on all.Now there are 2. And you are told in Matt that if two of you shall agree on earth as touching any thing ...... So after you read this following I wont bother you again.
Which Bibles translated from Greek used “Easter”?
King James Version (1611) – English, translated from Greek
This is the only major Greek-to-English Bible that ever translated pascha as Easter in the text.
- Acts 12:4 → uses “Easter”
- Greek word: πάσχα (pascha)
- KJV: “…intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.”
All of these were based on the Greek New Testament:
These all translated Greek pascha as Easter in Acts 12:4.
Translation Date Language Used “Easter”? Tyndale NT 1526 English Coverdale Bible 1535 English Great Bible 1539 English Bishops’ Bible 1568 English King James Version 1611 English
Every Greek manuscript and printed Greek New Testament says:
Greek Bibles themselves never use “Easter”
No ancient or modern Greek Bible uses a different word meaning “Easter” there — because the text itself is already Greek.
So:
- Greek → Greek: always πάσχα
- Greek → English:
- KJV & early English Bibles = Easter
- Modern English Bibles = Passover
Bottom Line
Only English translations from Greek ever inserted “Easter.”
The Greek text itself never did.
That’s why Acts 12:4 is such a powerful example of tradition overriding translation —
