Jesus Christ is the wisdom and creation of God

Runningman said:
Matthew 6:9 explicitly says the name of the Father is hallowed (regarded as holy.)
Click to expand...

Peter applies the 'Lord' (YHWH) from Isaiah 8:13 in reference to Jesus in 1 Peter 3:15.
Thus, Jesus is to be regarded as 'holy' in that He is YHWH.

Moreover, the same Greek word for 'pray' (proseuchomai) in Matthew 6:9 is used in reference to Jesus in 1 Peter 3:12.
The 'Lord' (in context) refers to 'Christ' (1 Pet. 3:15).

Peter quotes from Psalm 34 in reference to Jesus more than once:
Psalm 34:8 -> the Lord refers to Jesus (1 Peter 2:3)
Psalm 34:15-16 -> the Lord refers to Jesus (1 Peter 3:12)




F

Post in thread 'Lord YHWH the N.T. affirms its Christ'

Fred said:
Peter quotes Psalm 34:8 (33:9 in the LXX) and applies YHWH from this passage in reference to the Lord Jesus in 1 Peter 2:3.


1 Peter 2:3-4
(3) if you have tasted the kindness of the Lord.
(4) And coming to Him as to a living stone which has been rejected by men, but is choice and precious in the sight of God.

www.biblegateway.com

Bible Gateway passage: Psalm 34:8 - New American Standard Bible 1995

O taste and see that the LORD is good; How blessed is the man who takes refuge in Him!
www.biblegateway.com www.biblegateway.com
Click to expand...


Later within this same epistle Peter quotes from Psalm 34 again in reference to the Lord Jesus.
1 Peter 3:12
For the eyes of the Lord are toward the righteous, and...
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Last edited:
Fred said:
Peter applies the 'Lord' (YHWH) from Isaiah 8:13 in reference to Jesus in 1 Peter 3:15.
Thus, Jesus is to be regarded as 'holy' in that He is YHWH.

Moreover, the same Greek word for 'pray' (proseuchomai) in Matthew 6:9 is used in reference to Jesus in 1 Peter 3:12.
The 'Lord' (in context) refers to 'Christ' (1 Pet. 3:15).

Peter quotes from Psalm 34 in reference to Jesus more than once:
Psalm 34:8 -> the Lord refers to Jesus (1 Peter 2:3)
Psalm 34:15-16 -> the Lord refers to Jesus (1 Peter 3:12)




F

Post in thread 'Lord YHWH the N.T. affirms its Christ'

Fred said:
Peter quotes Psalm 34:8 (33:9 in the LXX) and applies YHWH from this passage in reference to the Lord Jesus in 1 Peter 2:3.


1 Peter 2:3-4
(3) if you have tasted the kindness of the Lord.
(4) And coming to Him as to a living stone which has been rejected by men, but is choice and precious in the sight of God.

www.biblegateway.com

Bible Gateway passage: Psalm 34:8 - New American Standard Bible 1995

O taste and see that the LORD is good; How blessed is the man who takes refuge in Him!
www.biblegateway.com www.biblegateway.com
Click to expand...


Later within this same epistle Peter quotes from Psalm 34 again in reference to the Lord Jesus.
1 Peter 3:12
For the eyes of the Lord are toward the righteous, and...
  • Like
Click to expand...
Not persuasive. The Bible doesn't contradict itself. Jesus is clearly not YHWH in Psalm 2:7 or Psalm 110:1, and other verses. not does it say Jesus was ever prayed to in the Bible. Don't sacrifice the integrity of the Bible for your creedal idols. Find a different interpretation. I recommend you just stick with what the Bible says. Trying beginning with Matthew 6:6,9 which are explicit teachings on praying to the Father only.
 
ProDeo said:
John 3:13 - No one has ascended into heaven except he who descended from heaven, the Son of Man.

Meaning Jesus existed before He was born on Earth.

John 17:5 - And now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had with you before the world existed.

Jesus existed before the world was created.
Click to expand...
You would have a point if there were any examples of Jesus pre-existing, but there aren't any. The only time Jesus is said to have pre-existed is in a sense in which is not literal. For example, Jesus was not crucified before the world was created but was rather crucified in Israel after he was born.

To understand the way Jesus pre-existed, you must also understand all of the other examples of people, things, or events pre-existing in God's foreknowledge before they even come into being.

To make the point, simply answer the following question. Was Jesus slain one time before the world was created and another time after the world was created, for a total of two slayings? Or was there one literal slaying?

Revelation 13
8All inhabitants of the earth will worship the beast—all whose names have not been written in the Lamb’s book of life, the Lamb who was slain from the creation of the world.
 
Runningman said:
Not persuasive. The Bible doesn't contradict itself.
Click to expand...

But you often contradict the bible with your inability to perceive and understand
Runningman said:
Jesus is clearly not YHWH in Psalm 2:7 or Psalm 110:1, and other verses. not does it say Jesus was ever prayed to in the Bible. Don't sacrifice the integrity of the Bible for your creedal idols. Find a different interpretation. I recommend you just stick with what the Bible says. Trying beginning with Matthew 6:6,9 which are explicit teachings on praying to the Father only.
Click to expand...
I just asked Lord Jesus to forgive you for this
 
brightfame52 said:
What was he doing ? Calling upon God
Click to expand...
Yes he was calling upon God. Prayer has a different meaning that calling upon someone. For example, we can call upon each other without praying to each other, but we can only pray to God. There are Biblical examples of people calling on others who are not God or Jesus. For example, Judges 9:7, 1 Kings 18:25, Acts 25:11, etc.
 
Runningman said:
Yes he was calling upon God. Prayer has a different meaning that calling upon someone. For example, we can call upon each other without praying to each other, but we can only pray to God. There are Biblical examples of people calling on others who are not God or Jesus. For example, Judges 9:7, 1 Kings 18:25, Acts 25:11, etc.
Click to expand...
Lol, he was praying to God, the Lord Jesus to receive his spirit, for the spirit returns to God Ecc 12

Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it.

Im sure Stephen was familiar with this scripture.
 
brightfame52 said:
Lol, he was praying to God, the Lord Jesus to receive his spirit, for the spirit returns to God Ecc 12

Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it.

Im sure Stephen was familiar with this scripture.
Click to expand...
Technically it doesn't say he prayed to Jesus.

Do you believe Matthew 6:6,9? It's the only New Testament teaching on who to pray to and Jesus explicitly said to pray to the Father.
 
Fred said:
John 14:14 is equally inspried.

So, Matthew 6:6, 9 may be "it" for you, but the Christian knows there are other verses in the Bible.
Click to expand...
If that is a teaching to pray to Jesus then this is a teaching to not pray to Jesus.

John 16
23In that day you will no longer ask Me anything. Truly, truly, I tell you, whatever you ask the Father in My name, He will give you.
 

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