FOUR reasons I believe in the sinful nature. (original sin/ancestral sin/total depravity)

Nowhere does the bible state because God gave a command then all commanded were already sinners
Neither do I say that God gave a command then all commanded were already sinners. I can't make this phrase even make sense, sorry. Only those who rebelled against the command became sinners, NOT all who heard the command. How else can someone actually become a sinner except by rebellion?

GOD gave a command.
People rebelled against that command, becoming sinful.
The law was then given to open their eyes to their sinfulness... not to the righteous who obeyed the command nor to cause their sinfulness as you suggest.
This is written in Tim 1:9 and Rom 3:20 both of which tell us why the law was given / instituted.
 
I would contend that He fulfilled the spirit of the law all His life but seemed not to when He broke the wrong, pharisaical, interpretation of the law

You can contend/pretend such all you want. Jesus didn't come to judge mankind according to the law....

By all means, start there. Like most other PCE advocates. You pretend Justice is what you desire. Grace isn't found in the law. Grace is contrary to the law.

There are plenty of other examples.
 
Canaanites are not Egyptians, Syrians, Assyrians, Arabs, Turks, etc... Looks like your ethnic cleansing dark spirit is blinded by its insatiable blood thirstiness. Tell it to take a hike.
Nor are "Greeks" inclusive of Romanians, French, Yugoslavs, Russians, Spanish, Egyptians, Jordanians, Iranians, Chinese, etc., but some think "Greek" means "Gentile." No, it means Greek. But no other ethnicities are mentioned.
It doesn't say, "there is neither Jew nor Gentile." It says, "Greek." So, what about other ethnicities? It's not talking about actual Greeks or Gentiles. It refers to Hellenized Jews. God is going to make two into one. Mixed heritage Hebrews are the "other flock" Jesus was referring in John 10.

28 There is neither Jew nor Greek [Hellenized Jew], Gal. 3:28.
 
Neither do I say that God gave a command then all commanded were already sinners. I can't make this phrase even make sense, sorry. Only those who rebelled against the command became sinners, NOT all who heard the command. How else can someone actually become a sinner except by rebellion?

GOD gave a command.
People rebelled against that command, becoming sinful.
The law was then given to open their eyes to their sinfulness... not to the righteous who obeyed the command nor to cause their sinfulness as you suggest.
This is written in Tim 1:9 and Rom 3:20 both of which tell us why the law was given / instituted.
Right here

GOD gave a command.
People rebelled against that command, becoming sinful.

You show one was not sinful until breaking a command
 
How can my saying the law was given to sinners to convict them of sin mean that I claim the law causes sin ?? which is the opposite of what I point out!!! :confused:

How about you tell me what the two verses then means: Tim 1:9 and Rom 3:20.
Um you argued more than that

I refer to the command in Gen 2:16 And the LORD God commanded him, “You may eat freely from every tree of the garden, 17 but you must not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil; for in the day that you eat of it, you will surely die.” which was a law or by eating they would not have been judged unto death nor have had their eyes opened to their nakedness.

he was not a sinner until he broke that law.
 
Christ wasn't holy because He keep the law of Moses. He is Eternal. Holy. Separate from sinners. Christ broke the law Moses several times in His life. If Christ had keep the requirements of the law to judge man for their sin, none of us wouldn't be alive today.

Christ had no requirement to keep the law of Moses.
So you are arguing Christ broke the law?

How was he then without sin?
 
So you are arguing Christ broke the law?

How was he then without sin?

How about we come at it from a different direction. Did keeping the law make Christ an acceptable sacrifice?

The law make no one righteous. Not you. Not Christ. Not anyone. The law giver has no obligation to keep the law Himself. He owns it all. It the right of possession. He is the right of His creation.
 
Nor are "Greeks" inclusive of Romanians, French, Yugoslavs, Russians, Spanish, Egyptians, Jordanians, Iranians, Chinese, etc., but some think "Greek" means "Gentile." No, it means Greek. But no other ethnicities are mentioned.
It doesn't say, "there is neither Jew nor Gentile." It says, "Greek." So, what about other ethnicities? It's not talking about actual Greeks or Gentiles. It refers to Hellenized Jews. God is going to make two into one. Mixed heritage Hebrews are the "other flock" Jesus was referring in John 10.

28 There is neither Jew nor Greek [Hellenized Jew], Gal. 3:28.
So now only Hellenized Jews are Greek??? I wasn't born yesterday. :ROFLMAO:
 
Jesus didn't come to judge mankind according to the law....
To point out that the scriptures tell us twice that the law was given not to the righteous, but to sinners to convict them of their sin and their need to turn to a Saviour, does not mean that He came to judge us according to the law.

Isn't this what is called a strawman argument, changing the point to be able to prove it wrong?
 
To point out that the scriptures tell us twice that the law was given not to the righteous, but to sinners to convict them of their sin and their need to turn to a Saviour, does not mean that He came to judge us according to the law.

Isn't this what is called a strawman argument, changing the point to be able to prove it wrong?

I didn't change anything. You're "grasping at straws"... not me.

The law doesn't establish righteousness period. End of story. The law isn't a "playbook" for the righteous.

Christ is the law giver. Christ does as He pleases. You don't understand that. It impossible for a law to be written that establishes or explains the righteousness of Christ.
 
Not true. Prove it. Just go ahead and post the verse. I welcome this conversation. Actually been waiting for it.... Please do.
Genesis 2:17 (LEB) — 17 but from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat from it you shall surely die.”

There is the pronouncement of death
 
How about we come at it from a different direction. Did keeping the law make Christ an acceptable sacrifice?

The law make no one righteous. Not you. Not Christ. Not anyone. The law giver has no obligation to keep the law Himself. He owns it all. It the right of possession. He is the right of His creation.
The fact he was sinless did assure he was an acceptable sacrifice
 
Genesis 2:17 (LEB) — 17 but from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat from it you shall surely die.”

There is the pronouncement of death

In review, I've already stated that Adam almost lived an entire day.

2Pe 3:8 But do not overlook this one fact, beloved, that with the Lord one day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.

Makes sense????? Right?
 
In review, I've already stated that Adam almost lived an entire day.

2Pe 3:8 But do not overlook this one fact, beloved, that with the Lord one day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.

Makes sense????? Right?

@TedT

Our conversation would be over rather quickly if you'd actually engage.

Do you see justice in Adam's punishment?
 
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