I would contend that He fulfilled the spirit of the law all His life but seemed not to when He broke the wrong, pharisaical, interpretation of the lawChrist broke the law Moses several times in His life. I
I would contend that He fulfilled the spirit of the law all His life but seemed not to when He broke the wrong, pharisaical, interpretation of the lawChrist broke the law Moses several times in His life. I
Neither do I say that God gave a command then all commanded were already sinners. I can't make this phrase even make sense, sorry. Only those who rebelled against the command became sinners, NOT all who heard the command. How else can someone actually become a sinner except by rebellion?Nowhere does the bible state because God gave a command then all commanded were already sinners
I would contend that He fulfilled the spirit of the law all His life but seemed not to when He broke the wrong, pharisaical, interpretation of the law
Nor are "Greeks" inclusive of Romanians, French, Yugoslavs, Russians, Spanish, Egyptians, Jordanians, Iranians, Chinese, etc., but some think "Greek" means "Gentile." No, it means Greek. But no other ethnicities are mentioned.Canaanites are not Egyptians, Syrians, Assyrians, Arabs, Turks, etc... Looks like your ethnic cleansing dark spirit is blinded by its insatiable blood thirstiness. Tell it to take a hike.
Right hereNeither do I say that God gave a command then all commanded were already sinners. I can't make this phrase even make sense, sorry. Only those who rebelled against the command became sinners, NOT all who heard the command. How else can someone actually become a sinner except by rebellion?
GOD gave a command.
People rebelled against that command, becoming sinful.
The law was then given to open their eyes to their sinfulness... not to the righteous who obeyed the command nor to cause their sinfulness as you suggest.
This is written in Tim 1:9 and Rom 3:20 both of which tell us why the law was given / instituted.
GOD gave a command.
People rebelled against that command, becoming sinful.
Um you argued more than thatHow can my saying the law was given to sinners to convict them of sin mean that I claim the law causes sin ?? which is the opposite of what I point out!!!
How about you tell me what the two verses then means: Tim 1:9 and Rom 3:20.
I refer to the command in Gen 2:16 And the LORD God commanded him, “You may eat freely from every tree of the garden, 17 but you must not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil; for in the day that you eat of it, you will surely die.” which was a law or by eating they would not have been judged unto death nor have had their eyes opened to their nakedness.
So you are arguing Christ broke the law?Christ wasn't holy because He keep the law of Moses. He is Eternal. Holy. Separate from sinners. Christ broke the law Moses several times in His life. If Christ had keep the requirements of the law to judge man for their sin, none of us wouldn't be alive today.
Christ had no requirement to keep the law of Moses.
Actually death was pronounced upon him because he did eat of the tree contrary to God's commandI said much more than this.....
Adam didn't die for eating some fruit that God didn't separate Him from? Was the fruit of the tree evil?
So you are arguing Christ broke the law?
How was he then without sin?
So now only Hellenized Jews are Greek??? I wasn't born yesterday.Nor are "Greeks" inclusive of Romanians, French, Yugoslavs, Russians, Spanish, Egyptians, Jordanians, Iranians, Chinese, etc., but some think "Greek" means "Gentile." No, it means Greek. But no other ethnicities are mentioned.
It doesn't say, "there is neither Jew nor Gentile." It says, "Greek." So, what about other ethnicities? It's not talking about actual Greeks or Gentiles. It refers to Hellenized Jews. God is going to make two into one. Mixed heritage Hebrews are the "other flock" Jesus was referring in John 10.
28 There is neither Jew nor Greek [Hellenized Jew], Gal. 3:28.
Actually death was pronounced upon him because he did eat of the tree contrary to God's command
So now only Hellenized Jews are Greek??? I wasn't born yesterday.![]()
To point out that the scriptures tell us twice that the law was given not to the righteous, but to sinners to convict them of their sin and their need to turn to a Saviour, does not mean that He came to judge us according to the law.Jesus didn't come to judge mankind according to the law....
To point out that the scriptures tell us twice that the law was given not to the righteous, but to sinners to convict them of their sin and their need to turn to a Saviour, does not mean that He came to judge us according to the law.
Isn't this what is called a strawman argument, changing the point to be able to prove it wrong?
Genesis 2:17 (LEB) — 17 but from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat from it you shall surely die.”Not true. Prove it. Just go ahead and post the verse. I welcome this conversation. Actually been waiting for it.... Please do.
The fact he was sinless did assure he was an acceptable sacrificeHow about we come at it from a different direction. Did keeping the law make Christ an acceptable sacrifice?
The law make no one righteous. Not you. Not Christ. Not anyone. The law giver has no obligation to keep the law Himself. He owns it all. It the right of possession. He is the right of His creation.
Genesis 2:17 (LEB) — 17 but from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat from it you shall surely die.”
There is the pronouncement of death
In Scripture they are. After 29-36 generations of Hebrews never made it back to Israel.So now only Hellenized Jews are Greek??? I wasn't born yesterday.![]()
The fact he was sinless did assure he was an acceptable sacrifice
In review, I've already stated that Adam almost lived an entire day.
2Pe 3:8 But do not overlook this one fact, beloved, that with the Lord one day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
Makes sense????? Right?