Commandments of God
- Thread starter Jamie Russell CME
- Start date
Hebrews tells you what the change in the Law is, plainly and in detail. A man either believes what is written or he doesn't.
That is your adopted religious philosophy, and "many" who come in Christ's Name" promote it, but it's not God's Word. The Jesus "of the Bible" warns you of this very thing. What became obsolete was the Priesthood "After the Order of Aaron". This priesthood dealt with;
#1. How God's Law is received.
#2. How sins were forgiven.
God's Word says God's Laws are written on the hearts of His People. This is done so they never become obsolete for God's People. And Sins are forgiven through the New Priest, "After the Order of Melchizedek", not the sons of Aaron, as per the old Priesthood Covenant. That Priesthood Covenant has become and vanished away.
It's right there in your own Bible.
I don't believe in the religion of this world you have adopted and are now promoting. Ignoring what is written and posted for your review and discussion, doesn't make God's Word posted void or a lie.
Heb. 9: 1 Then verily the first covenant had also ordinances of divine service, and a worldly sanctuary.
2 For there was a tabernacle made; the first, wherein was the candlestick, and the table, and the shewbread; which is called the sanctuary.
3 And after the second veil, the tabernacle which is called the Holiest of all;
4 Which had the golden censer, and the ark of the covenant overlaid round about with gold, wherein was the golden pot that had manna, and Aaron's rod that budded, and the tables of the covenant;
5 And over it the cherubims of glory shadowing the mercyseat; of which we cannot now speak particularly.
6 Now when these things were thus ordained, the priests went always into the first tabernacle, accomplishing the service of God.
7 But into the second went the high priest alone once every year, not without blood, which he offered for himself, and for the errors of the people:
8 The Holy Ghost this signifying, that the way into the holiest of all was not yet made manifest, while as the first tabernacle was yet standing:
In the old Priesthood, God's Law was written in tables of Stone, and kept after the second veil in the Tabernacle, which was the Holies of all. Because of course, as Paul teaches but "many" don't believe, God's Laws are Holy, Just and Good. But only a Levite Priest was allowed to enter in the Old Covenant.
This Changed when the Seed came, the Prophesied Priest "After the Order of Melchizedek". No longer is God's Law hidden in the Arc of the Covenant, only to be received through the Levitical Priesthood. But as God Promised in the New Covenant, God's Law is now written on the hearts of His People.
There are "many" who "transform themselves into apostles of Christ", who preach against these truths. They preach that God's 10 Commandments are become obsolete. It's an insidious lie that is easily exposed by the Sword of the Lord, the Word of God.
I addressed it, but it won't matter to you, you will just move to another verse you believe makes God's Word void.
The tables of the Covenant (9:4) were a major component of the "first" covenant that has been abrogated (8:13).
There is not one New Covenant command where the 7th day Sabbath must be obeyed.
Prove otherwise.
Last edited:
No, I am staying with this verse and Hebrews 8:13.
You can play make believe with how the words of the Bible are properly defined all you want, but the serious Bible student would know better not to engage in such chicanery,
https://christcentered.community.forum/threads/sabbath-or-sunday-what-did-jesus-teach-show-in-scripture.1309/#post-51152
101G
Well-known member
Romans 2:11 "For there is no respect of persons with God." Romans 2:12 "For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;" Romans 2:13 "(For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified." Romans 2:14 "For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:" Romans 2:15 "Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another;)" (ONE MIGHT WANT TO READ VERSE 14 & 15 AGAIN), Romans 2:16 "In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel."
101G.
Brakelite
Active member
So that was God's plan all along?
I have a law. Man has broken law. I heal man by getting rid of law. That sounds more like a human government which can't handle the demands of lobbyists.
Yes.
I go by what the Scriptures teach (Acts 17:11). It does not have to accord with what makes so-called "sense" or "nonsense" by my our anyone else's standards. I leave human reasoning to the humanists.
Brakelite
Active member
Except it wasn't. God's plan was to change man so that he meets the standards of the law. Otherwise, sin will never be overcome.
Except it was in that God declares all the laws of the Old Covenant as being obsolete.
God affirmed this is true.
Therefore, I believe it.
Brakelite
Active member
KJV Romans 8:3-4
3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
Brakelite
Active member
Not all the laws. Else murder would no longer be sin. And it's the law that declare murder as sin. "I would not know lust, except the law said, 'thou shalt not covet'".
= the righteousness of faith.
The faith that Christians embrace in the New Covenant.
Last edited:
This is in the New Covenant (Romans 13:9).
Thus, a Christian is to not murder (cf. 1 Peter 4:15; 1 John 3:15)
Romans 3:1-2 Then what advantage has the Jew? Or what is the value of circumcision? 2 Much in every way. To begin with, the Jews were entrusted with the oracles of God.
Having or not having the law refers to having physical possession of the oracles of God, or in other words, having possession of a physical Torah scroll. Jews were responsible for copying, maintaining, and teaching the Torah, so if a Gentile wanted access to one, then they had to go through the Jews in order to do it. In Romans 2:13-15, it is clear that only doers of the Torah will be justified and that believing Gentiles will by nature be doers of the Torah even though they do not have possession of a Torah scroll. In Matthew 4:15-23, Jesus began his ministry with the Gospel message to repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand, which was a light to the Gentiles, and the Torah was how his audience knew what sin is (Romans 3:20), so repenting from our disobedience to it is a central part of the Gospel of the Kingdom, and that is how God will judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to his Gospel.
Brakelite
Active member
But either the ten commandments are gone, or not. Did they go just temporarily? Was there a time when they were gone before being reinstated? What reinstated them? The mention of murder in Peter's letter? Or John's? Which one? What of the murders that were committed between Calvary and the writing of Peter's letter? Was that not sin because murder hadn't been reinstated yet? Was the original law that formed the basis of God's government in heaven also abrogated as it was on earth? Those questions apply to all the commandments: did they all come back into covenant status at different times? If not, what event reinstated them and when?
