All men

@civic
Is there anyone that should not be prayer for ?
Yes, many! Also, many we should pray for, for the position folks hold, where prayer could make life easier for good people to live under.

But, some folks I would never pray for~and neither did Christ.

John 17:9​

“I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.”

David said:

Psalms 139:22​

“I hate them with perfect hatred: I count them mine enemies.”

I have no love for men or women who hate godly people and godliness in general. Those folk who hate God, his word etc. I count them God's enemies. Serial killers do not deserve the prayers of God's people, they deserve to die, etc. Many others could be named.
 
@civic

Yes, many! Also, many we should pray for, for the position folks hold, where prayer could make life easier for good people to live under.

But, some folks I would never pray for~and neither did Christ.

John 17:9​

“I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.”

David said:

Psalms 139:22​

“I hate them with perfect hatred: I count them mine enemies.”

I have no love for men or women who hate godly people and godliness in general. Those folk who hate God, his word etc. I count them God's enemies. Serial killers do not deserve the prayers of God's people, they deserve to die, etc. Many others could be named.
That’s not what Jesus taught us to do.

Matthew 5:44
But I say to you, Love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you

Or Paul

Romans 12:14
Bless those who persecute you. Bless and do not curse.

Romans 12:20-21
On the contrary, “If your enemy is hungry, feed him; if he is thirsty, give him a drink. For in so doing, you will heap burning coals on his head.” / Do not be overcome by evil, but overcome evil with good

Or Stephen

Who prayed for his executioners Acts 7:60

Or Jesus on the cross with His persecutors.

Are you beginning to see a pattern yet ?
 
Then is God really the SAVIOR “of the world , all people , everyone”? Certainly, God did not actually SAVE “world , all people , everyone” (UNIVERSALISM).

Is God really “The propitiation for the sins of the whole world. 1 John 2:2” … since “man has a choice to believe or reject the gospel. God does not make anyone believe , that’s man’s decision to believe.”? After all, only those who believe have been truly “propitiated” (reconciled with God).
Those who have been reconciled to God by Christs Death while they were being enemies/unbelievers, they are ensured to believe since they are ensured to be saved by His Life. If they never believe then that would reverse what Christ has already done by reconciling them by His death.
 
And there we have the dichotomy of the absolute attributes of the all-powerful God. His holiness and His mercy stand in perfect opposition. How is it possible for God in His holiness t forego the punishment required for man's sins and at the same time be merciful to forgive the sins of man and allow him into His very presence? That God in His wisdom has established the perfect plan for that is the very essence of the gospel. Don't fight it. Believe it even if you cannot understand it.

Holiness requires forgiveness.

Only flesh would see such as opposing one another.
 
He saves those who believe the gospel. All men can be saved but not all men will make that choice, decision to believe the gospel and remain in their sin.
Therein lies exactly my point. Which does SCRIPTURE teach, that Jesus died so men “can be saved” or that Jesus died “to save” men?

The Doctrines of Grace place the POWER to save (that which distinguishes the saved from the lost) in the hands of GOD. The Doctrines of Free Will place the POWER to save (that which distinguishes the saved from the lost) in the hands of MEN.

Propitiation means atonement was made, it does not mean sins are forgiven until one believes the gospel. No one is forgiven their sins until they become a child of God.

According to the dictionary, “propitiation” means: “the act of gaining or regaining the favor or goodwill of someone or something”

… so I repeat the question: Was the favor or goodwill of God regained for ALL MEN, THE WHOLE WORLD, EVERYONE as you quoted in “The propitiation for the sins of the whole world. 1 John 2:2” under your Doctrine of Free Will?
 
Therein lies exactly my point. Which does SCRIPTURE teach, that Jesus died so men “can be saved” or that Jesus died “to save” men?

The Doctrines of Grace place the POWER to save (that which distinguishes the saved from the lost) in the hands of GOD. The Doctrines of Free Will place the POWER to save (that which distinguishes the saved from the lost) in the hands of MEN.



According to the dictionary, “propitiation” means: “the act of gaining or regaining the favor or goodwill of someone or something”

… so I repeat the question: Was the favor or goodwill of God regained for ALL MEN, THE WHOLE WORLD, EVERYONE as you quoted in “The propitiation for the sins of the whole world. 1 John 2:2” under your Doctrine of Free Will?
It’s time for some education on propitiation

In 1 John 4:10 hilasmos/ translated as propitiation in some translations there cannot mean sooth anger and must mean something else( Expiation) than what is taught in christendom. God says love 3 times in that passage so it cannot mean anger being soothed. It means expiation as in covering for sin.

I always go to Christ who is God as my primary source of truth. His teaching must not contradict anyone else in scripture. If there seems to be a contradiction then it is with mans understanding on the topic not from Jesus teaching. He is God and He is the authority on all things. Not once did Jesus even hint Hid death was propitiation as taught by the reformers meaning appeasing an angry deity- that concept is pagan. That is why propitiation is not a good translation, expiation is the better translation and meaning in 1 John.

How did He view His own death- the atonement ?

We see God the Son described His own death, the Atonement in 4 ways. Theology begins with God. He said His death was a Substitution, a Ransom, a Passover, a Sacrifice and for forgiveness of sins- Expiation

1- Greater love hath no man than this, that a man lay down his life for his friends. John 15:13 Substitution, Ransom

2-No man takes my life I lay it down and I will take it up again- John 10:18 Substitution, Ransom

3- I lay My life down for the sheep- John 10:15Substitution, Ransom

4- Jesus viewed His death as the Passover John 6:51

5-just as the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give his life as a Ransom for many- Matthew 20:28

6-I Am the Good Shepherd who lays down His life for the sheep- Substitution, John 10:11

7-Jesus said in John 11:50- nor do you take into account that it is expedient for you that one man die for the people, and that the whole nation not perish- Substitution

8 -This is my blood of the Covenant which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins- Matthew 26:28- Expiation

The N.T. writers' emphasis on the atonement is on the side of expiation rather than propitiation, which is only used twice in the epistle of 1 John. Gods’ wrath is still future and will judge those who reject His Sons atonement for sin. Gods’ wrath was not poured out on the Son for sin otherwise there would be no future wrath from God because of sin.

If we were to read propitiation ( appease an angry god as the meaning ) in 1 John 4:10look at how absurd if reads.

This is love: not that we loved God, but that he loved us and sent his Son to appease our angry god , to appease His anger, to appease his angry self etc.......for our sins.

That makes no sense at all theologically , grammatically or contextually. It’s a contradiction, an oxymoron.


These translations properly convey the meaning of hilasmos.

Berean Standard Bible
And love consists in this: not that we loved God, but that He loved us and sent His Son as the atoning sacrifice for our sins.

New International Version
This is love: not that we loved God, but that he loved us and sent his Son as an atoning sacrifice for our sins.

New Living Translation
This is real love—not that we loved God, but that he loved us and sent his Son as a sacrifice to take away our sins.

Christian Standard Bible
Love consists in this: not that we loved God, but that he loved us and sent his Son to be the atoning sacrifice for our sins.

Aramaic Bible in Plain English
In this is love: it was not that we loved God, but he has loved us, and he sent us his Son, the atonement for the sake of our sins.

Contemporary English Version
Real love isn't our love for God, but his love for us. God sent his Son to be the sacrifice by which our sins are forgiven.

Good News Translation
This is what love is: it is not that we have loved God, but that he loved us and sent his Son to be the means by which our sins are forgiven.

International Standard Version
This is love: not that we have loved God, but that he loved us and sent his Son to be the atoning sacrifice for our sins.

Majority Standard Bible
And love consists in this: not that we loved God, but that He loved us and sent His Son as the atoning sacrifice for our sins.

New American Bible
In this is love: not that we have loved God, but that he loved us and sent his Son as expiation for our sins.

NET Bible
In this is love: not that we have loved God, but that he loved us and sent his Son to be the atoning sacrifice for our sins.

New Revised Standard Version
In this is love, not that we loved God but that he loved us and sent his Son to be the atoning sacrifice for our sins.

New Heart English Bible
In this is love, not that we have loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son as the atoning sacrifice for our sins.

Weymouth New Testament
This is love indeed--we did not love God, but He loved us and sent His Son to be an atoning sacrifice for our sins.

World English Bible
In this is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son as the atoning sacrifice for our sins.

Here are the only three uses of “propitiation” in the KJV:

“Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation(G2435) through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; 26 To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.” (Rom 3:25-26)

“And he is the propitiation (G2434) for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.” (1 John 2:2)

“Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation(G2434) for our sins.” (1 John 4:10)

As we will see, this is a very poor word to use to translate the original Greek.

Here are the definitions given for the Greek words used for propitiation:

Original Word Definitions

G2434 ἱλασμός hilasmos hil-as-mos’

a root word; n m;
AV-propitiation 2; 2
1) an appeasing, propitiating
2) the means of appeasing, a propitiation

G2435 ἱλαστήριον hilasterion hil-as-tay’-ree-on
from a derivative of G2433; n n;
AV-propitiation 1, mercyseat 1; 2
1) relating to an appeasing or expiating, having placating or expiating force, expiatory; a means of appeasing or expiating, a propitiation
1a)
used of the cover of the ark of the covenant in the Holy of Holies, which was sprinkled with the blood of the expiatory victim on the annual day of atonement (this rite signifying that the life of the people, the loss of which they had merited by their sins, was offered to God in the blood as the life of the victim, and that God by this ceremony was appeased and their sins expiated); hence the lid of expiation, the propitiatory
1b) an expiatory sacrifice
1c) an expiatory victim

Since G2435 comes from G2433 we should look at that word:

2433 ἱλάσκομαι hilaskomai hil-as’-kom-ahee
middle voice from the same as 2436; v;
AV-be merciful 1, make reconciliation 1; 2
1) to render one’s self, to appease, conciliate to one’s self
1a) to become propitious, be placated or appeased
1b) to be propitious, be gracious, be merciful
2) to expiate, make propitiation for

There is only one other verse that uses “hilasterion” (G2435):

“And over it the cherubims of glory shadowing the mercyseat; (G2435) of which we cannot now speak particularly.” (Heb 9:5)

That verse suggests that “hilasterion” is a place where mercy is given – quite different from the usual meaning of propitiation.

So, if that word had been used in Romans 3:25, would that give the verse a different meaning?

“Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiationmercy seat …”

It literally means “a place or means of reconciliation, a place where atonement or unity and at-one-ment takes place.”

The only two verses that use “hilaskomai” (G2433) are:

“And the publican, standing afar off, would not lift up so much as his eyes unto heaven, but smote upon his breast, saying, God be merciful (G2433) to me a sinner.” (Luke 18:13)

“Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for (G2433) the sins of the people.” (Heb 2:17)

Those verses do not suggest anything like propitiation. What are the effects of the translation of a word meaning mercy seat as propitiation? They can’t be good.

Where did the Concept of Propitiation Come From?

Many (if not all) pagan cultures embrace the concept of propitiation and appeasement. Here is another example of modern misunderstanding:

“… Propitiation is an ancient word, which we as Christians have in common with other world religions. To propitiate a god is to offer a sacrifice that turns aside the god’s wrath. Anyone who believes in a god knows that they need some way to stay on the friendly side of that god. So they give gifts to the god, or serve in the temple, or give alms. And if the god is angry with them, they pay a price, or make a sacrifice, or find some way to soothe the god’s anger: they propitiate him.”(https://maney.us/blog/2014/03/25/trevin-wax-pagan-propitiation-vs-biblical-propitiation/)

Do we really need a way to stay on the friendly side of God? What about “God is love”?

Here are verses using “propitiation” (in the KJV):

“God presented Jesus as the way and the means of restoration. Now, through the trust established by the evidence of God’s character revealed when Christ died, we may partake of the Remedy procured by Christ. God did this to demonstrate that he is right and good — because in his forbearance he suspended, for a time, the ultimate consequence of us being out of harmony with his design for life — yet he has been falsely accused of being unfair. 26 He did it to demonstrate at the present time how right and good he is, so that he would also be seen as being right when he heals those who trust in Jesus.” (Rom 3:25-26, )

“This is what real love is: It is not that we have loved God, or that we have done something to get him to love us, but that he loved us so much that he sent his Son to become the Remedy and cure for the infection of sin and selfishness so that through him we might be restored into perfect unity with God.” (1 John 4:10, ) https://characterofgod.org/propitiation-definition/


hope this helps !!!
 
@civic

Propitiation means atonement was made, it does not mean sins are forgiven until one believes the gospel. No one is forgiven their sins until they become a child of God.

Thats error, If Christ is a propitiation for one, there sins are forgiven, Gods Justice against them has been satisfied.

Heb 8 12

12 For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.
That word merciful is the greek word hileōs:

  1. propitious, merciful

This the result o the New Covenant blood shed which Christ shed !
 
Therein lies exactly my point. Which does SCRIPTURE teach, that Jesus died so men “can be saved” or that Jesus died “to save” men?

The Doctrines of Grace place the POWER to save (that which distinguishes the saved from the lost) in the hands of GOD. The Doctrines of Free Will place the POWER to save (that which distinguishes the saved from the lost) in the hands of MEN.

Nonsense.

For example, I have the power to help you. I'm not going to help you until you start listening to me. In fact, you can't be helped until you start listening to me. When you listen, I will help you.

The idea that by listening to me, you have the power to help yourself is preposterous. It is delusional.
 
Nonsense.

For example, I have the power to help you. I'm not going to help you until you start listening to me. In fact, you can't be helped until you start listening to me. When you listen, I will help you.

The idea that by listening to me, you have the power to help yourself is preposterous. It is delusional.
Its difficult to listen when you dead . Only them who are of God hear/listen Jn 8:47

47 He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of God.

Whoever is of God listens to God. [Those who belong to God hear the words of God.] This is the reason that you do not listen [to those words, to Me]: because you do not belong to God and are not of God or in harmony with Him.AMPC
 
Its difficult to listen when you dead . Only them who are of God hear/listen Jn 8:47

47 He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of God.

Whoever is of God listens to God. [Those who belong to God hear the words of God.] This is the reason that you do not listen [to those words, to Me]: because you do not belong to God and are not of God or in harmony with Him.AMPC
Projecting
 
Nonsense. If that were true, then all would be forgiven. I might be said that forgiveness derives from God's holiness.

Oversimplification. God is just and faithful to forgive. If God were like a man, then there would be no forgiveness without servitude. That is how men judge forgiveness. As long as you serve them, forgiveness is given.

Do you believe God is better than this?
 
Then is God really the SAVIOR “of the world , all people , everyone”? Certainly, God did not actually SAVE “world , all people , everyone” (UNIVERSALISM).

Is God really “The propitiation for the sins of the whole world. 1 John 2:2” … since “man has a choice to believe or reject the gospel. God does not make anyone believe , that’s man’s decision to believe.”? After all, only those who believe have been truly “propitiated” (reconciled with God).

The propitiation refers to both the pre-faith and/or post-faith aspects of the propitiation. But the propitiation doesn't provide faith.
 
Technically, all of salvation is a gift from God and not of ourselves [Ephesians 2:1-10] … that would include Faith/belief.

[Romans 12:3 ESV] “For by the grace given to me I say to everyone among you not to think of himself more highly than he ought to think, but to think with sober judgment, each according to the measure of faith that God has assigned.”

A gift is a gift because there are no strings attached, not necessarily that it is received.
 
It’s time for some education on propitiation
Foul … moving the goal posts!

YOU first chose 1 John 2:2 to drag “propitiation” into this conversation (I did not introduce the topic).
YOU then offered an incorrect definition of the English word “propitiation”.
I responded with the definition of “propitiation” directly from the Merriam-Webster Dictionary to demonstrate that YOU were redefining the English word.

Now you are ignoring the verse you introduced to cherry-pick another verse to prove that the word means whatever YOU want it to mean rather than what the DICTIONARY says it means.

I pass on your flawed “education”.
At a minimum, you should stick with 1 John 2:2 and explain why the translators got it wrong and we cannot trust and English Bibles to mean what they say. (Good luck with that.)
 
The propitiation refers to both the pre-faith and/or post-faith aspects of the propitiation. But the propitiation doesn't provide faith.
“Propitiation” refers to restoring the relationship between sinful man and holy God. For each and any individual, the relationship with God is either restored or it is not restored. There is no “little bit saved” just as there is no “little bit pregnant” or “little bit married” (one either IS or one IS NOT).

Thus my question … John said (of Jesus) “and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.” [1 John 2:2] …

So did Jesus really restore the relationship of “the WHOLE WORLD”, of “ALL MEN”, of “EVERYONE WITHOUT EXCEPTION”? (Is that not “Universalism?)

So which of the following options is the correct one:
  • the translators chose “propitiation” when that is not the correct English word, because what Jesus provided to all men was NOT “propitiation”.
  • we have misunderstood the meaning of “the whole world” and John did not mean “all men without exception”.
  • John teaches a form of Universalism (all men without exception are reconciled to God).
 
Foul … moving the goal posts!

YOU first chose 1 John 2:2 to drag “propitiation” into this conversation (I did not introduce the topic).
YOU then offered an incorrect definition of the English word “propitiation”.
I responded with the definition of “propitiation” directly from the Merriam-Webster Dictionary to demonstrate that YOU were redefining the English word.

Now you are ignoring the verse you introduced to cherry-pick another verse to prove that the word means whatever YOU want it to mean rather than what the DICTIONARY says it means.

I pass on your flawed “education”.
At a minimum, you should stick with 1 John 2:2 and explain why the translators got it wrong and we cannot trust and English Bibles to mean what they say. (Good luck with that.)
lol I did a biblical exegesis on the passages it’s used and defined it with the Greek lexicons.
 
I have no love for men or women who hate godly people and godliness in general. Those folk who hate God, his word etc. I count them God's enemies. Serial killers do not deserve the prayers of God's people, they deserve to die, etc. Many others could be named.
Using this logic, Jesus was wrong in loving and dying for the whole world, in which are many “men or women who hate godly people and godliness in general.”

Doug
 
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