All Claims of The Son's Deity

There's no verse anywhere that says Jesus laid aside his deity...
Hebrews 2:9 "But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man."

now commonsense to understand that the Lord Jesus Almighty God laid aside his deity. Knowing this, that there are only three entities. 1. God 2. angels and 3. man. if God, (Jesus) was made lower than the angels, then he God the Lord Jesus had to be HIGHER than the angels whom he was made LOWER than.

UNDERSTAND? if not just ask. 101G is here to assist you in clear understanding.

101G.
 
To all,
to my unitarian Brothers in Christ. understand the implications of Hebrews 2:9 . if the Lord Jesus was just a man, an agent of God, how is a MAN greater than the angels? especially in POWER and MIGHT. for the scriptures clearly states, 2 Peter 2:11 "Whereas angels, which are greater in power and might, bring not railing accusation against them before the Lord."

so, if Jesus was Just a Man, (as you unitarian have said), then please tell us how he, Jesus as a man was made LOWER than the angels?

any unitarian Brother can reply with the answer please. please provide book, chapter, and verse to your answer.

101G.
 
Hebrews 2:9 "But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man."

now commonsense to understand that the Lord Jesus Almighty God laid aside his deity. Knowing this, that there are only three entities. 1. God 2. angels and 3. man. if God, (Jesus) was made lower than the angels, then he God the Lord Jesus had to be HIGHER than the angels whom he was made LOWER than.

UNDERSTAND? if not just ask. 101G is here to assist you in clear understanding.

101G.
Commonsense? You mean your own human reasoning, imagination, speculation and assumptions as you pick one verse here, and another verse there, a hint here, and a clue there, and then you construct your "own God" which is the product of your own human thinking.
 
A Trinity person asked...

Please explain how the Word that became flesh (Jesus) was with God and was God in the beginning before Christ was born? And how could Jesus have looked forward to the glory he had BEFORE becoming flesh?

And then someone replied with this...


Jesus did not physically exist before his birth, but rather was foreordained according to 1 Peter 1:20, which explains the “pre-existence” verses. God’s Word “Logos” in John 1:1 refers to God’s plan, wisdom, and intention. NOT a “second person” of the doctrine of men’s Trinity. That “Word” became flesh when Jesus was born and that was in John 1:14.

The “Word” was with God in the beginning because God’s plan and purpose for salvation was with Him from the start. But not as a literal person yet. So in John 17:5, when Jesus says he had glory with God before the world began, he’s not talking about remembering a past life. He’s asking the Father to now give him the glory that was planned for him all along.

Just like believers are said to be chosen “before the foundation of the world” (Ephesians 1:4), even though we didn’t exist yet. It’s about destiny, not preexistence. Jesus is God’s human Messiah, born at a specific time (Luke 1:35), not an eternal being who became a man. The beauty is that God’s plan - His Word - became a real person, when the precious Son was born!
 
1.) The word Bible is in the Scriptures mentioned as scrolls and scripts.
Is scrolls and scripts Old and New Testament?
2.) In this life we speak about what is. Not what is not. I can say I'm a man. I should not have to say what I'm not. That I'm a man, but not a horse, or a cow, or a tree, or a truck, etc.
Yes, do you believe that a dog bear puppies?
1. Here, Jesus as "Son of man" as His mother is human Mary. Is He man or not?
2. And as Jesus the "Son of God" as His Father is God. Is He God or not? Why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second one? Kindly explain.
3.) Philippians says Jesus emptied Himself and took the form of a servant in the likeness of man. It does not say he emptied himself of his Godhood.
Another simple logic, hope you will answer all these and not just evade it;
1. Jesus as in the "form of a servant," is He man or not?
2. Jesus as in the "form of God", is He God or not? Again why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second? Explain again.
 
Is scrolls and scripts Old and New Testament?

Yes, do you believe that a dog bear puppies?
1. Here, Jesus as "Son of man" as His mother is human Mary. Is He man or not?
2. And as Jesus the "Son of God" as His Father is God. Is He God or not? Why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second one? Kindly explain.

Another simple logic, hope you will answer all these and not just evade it;
1. Jesus as in the "form of a servant," is He man or not?
2. Jesus as in the "form of God", is He God or not? Again why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second? Explain again.
Is scrolls and scripts Old and New Testament?
Scrolls, Scripts, and Writings are other words for Bible. So don't say the word Bible is not in the Bible. The word Trinity would have been a very big deal and something that important would have been taught everywhere. And it is not taught anywhere. It would have been clearly stated in the Bible and in the earliest Christian creeds if the doctrine of the Trinity was genuine and central to Christian belief and especially if belief in it was necessary for salvation as many Trinitarians teach. God gave the Scriptures to the Jewish people, and the Jewish religion and worship that comes from that revelation does not contain any reference to or teachings about a triune God. Surely the Jewish people were qualified to read and understand it, but they never saw the doctrine of the Trinity,

1. Here, Jesus as "Son of man" as His mother is human Mary. Is He man or not?
2. And as Jesus the "Son of God" as His Father is God. Is He God or not? Why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second one? Kindly explain.

1.) There's nothing in Scripture that says if Mary was his mother then he had to be born a mother.
2.) There's nothing in Scripture that says if God was his father then he had to be born a God.

Another simple logic, hope you will answer all these and not just evade it;
1. Jesus as in the "form of a servant," is He man or not?
2. Jesus as in the "form of God", is He God or not? Again why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second? Explain again.


1.) Yes Jesus had the outward appearance of a servant. Not the essential nature of a servant.
2.) Yes Jesus had the outward appearance of God. Not the essential nature of a god.
 
Is scrolls and scripts Old and New Testament?
Scrolls, Scripts, and Writings are other words for Bible. So don't say the word Bible is not in the Bible. The word Trinity would have been a very big deal and something that important would have been taught everywhere. And it is not taught anywhere. It would have been clearly stated in the Bible and in the earliest Christian creeds if the doctrine of the Trinity was genuine and central to Christian belief and especially if belief in it was necessary for salvation as many Trinitarians teach. God gave the Scriptures to the Jewish people, and the Jewish religion and worship that comes from that revelation does not contain any reference to or teachings about a triune God. Surely the Jewish people were qualified to read and understand it, but they never saw the doctrine of the Trinity,

1. Here, Jesus as "Son of man" as His mother is human Mary. Is He man or not?
2. And as Jesus the "Son of God" as His Father is God. Is He God or not? Why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second one? Kindly explain.

1.) There's nothing in Scripture that says if Mary was his mother then he had to be born a mother.
2.) There's nothing in Scripture that says if God was his father then he had to be born a God.


Another simple logic, hope you will answer all these and not just evade it;
1. Jesus as in the "form of a servant," is He man or not?
2. Jesus as in the "form of God", is He God or not? Again why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second? Explain again.


1.) Yes Jesus had the outward appearance of a servant. Not the essential nature of a servant.
2.) Yes Jesus had the outward appearance of God. Not the essential nature of a god.
What? Really? No real logic to the text is needed by Peterlag.
 
We cannot approach the Bible with wisdom and “reason together” if we must invent and use non-biblical phrases to support our theology. The Bible calls Jesus the “Son” of God for the simple reason that he had a beginning. Jesus had been part of God’s plan since the foundation of the world, but he began his actual life when God “fathered” him and Mary conceived him in her womb.

There are many verses where Jesus and God are portrayed as two separate beings and there are too many examples to list, but just to mention a few we can look at when Jesus told the rich young ruler that he was not good, but “God” was good. Also Jesus grew in favor with “God” and with men, and he told his disciples “Believe in God; believe also in me."
 
We cannot approach the Bible with wisdom and “reason together” if we must invent and use non-biblical phrases to support our theology. The Bible calls Jesus the “Son” of God for the simple reason that he had a beginning. Jesus had been part of God’s plan since the foundation of the world, but he began his actual life when God “fathered” him and Mary conceived him in her womb.

There are many verses where Jesus and God are portrayed as two separate beings and there are too many examples to list, but just to mention a few we can look at when Jesus told the rich young ruler that he was not good, but “God” was good. Also Jesus grew in favor with “God” and with men, and he told his disciples “Believe in God; believe also in me."
So stop inventing falsehoods against the fact that "the Word is God". Stop promoting your Heretical myths and fables that misrepresent the Word who was God.
 
So stop inventing falsehoods against the fact that "the Word is God". Stop promoting your Heretical myths and fables that misrepresent the Word who was God.
Jesus did not physically exist before his birth, but rather was foreordained according to 1 Peter 1:20, which explains the “pre-existence” verses. God’s Word “Logos” in John 1:1 refers to God’s plan, wisdom, and intention. NOT a “second person” of the doctrine of men’s Trinity. That “Word” became flesh when Jesus was born and that was in John 1:14. The “Word” was with God in the beginning because God’s plan and purpose for salvation was with Him from the start. But not as a literal person yet.
 
So stop inventing falsehoods against the fact that "the Word is God". Stop promoting your Heretical myths and fables that misrepresent the Word who was God.
Why does 1John 1:1-3 say the Word is a thing if the Word is God? My God isn't a thing in any world and I am pretty sure He wouldn't like to be referred to as such. Maybe since there are no examples of the Word being God in the Bible, and John not being a believer in the deity of Jesus in Acts 4:23-31, you are misunderstanding John 1:1?

By the way, John 17:3 plainly states that the only true God is the Father. So we can rule out the Word being literally God.

My advice to you is don't just camp out in John 1:1 and pretend like it stands alone while ignoring the rest of the Bible. Logos Theology is a very weak philosophy with little scriptural support.
 
Why does 1John 1:1-3 say the Word is a thing if the Word is God? My God isn't a thing in any world and I am pretty sure He wouldn't like to be referred to as such. Maybe since there are no examples of the Word being God in the Bible, and John not being a believer in the deity of Jesus in Acts 4:23-31, you are misunderstanding John 1:1?

By the way, John 17:3 plainly states that the only true God is the Father. So we can rule out the Word being literally God.

My advice to you is don't just camp out in John 1:1 and pretend like it stands alone while ignoring the rest of the Bible. Logos Theology is a very weak philosophy with little scriptural support.
I see that you're trying to run away once again from John 1:1. There's still the fact that "the Word was God" that you need to address. The Word was more than "godly", "the Word was God". Do you believe John 1:1 when it says "the Word was God"?

As for 1 John 1, if you're implying that John’s understanding of the Word went from being a Person (ουτος in John 1:2) to a “thing”, you're dead wrong.

Here's how 1 John 1:1 supports the Trinitarian view that the Word of God is a Person and not a thing:

Let's start by looking at the Greek version of 1 John 1:1. In particular, let's look at the first 2 Greek words ῞Ο ἦν that you claim refer to a “thing”.

1Jn 1:1 ῞Ο ἦν ἀπ᾿ ἀρχῆς, ὃ ἀκηκόαμεν, ὃ ἑωράκαμεν τοῖς ὀφθαλμοῖς ἡμῶν, ὃ ἐθεασάμεθα καὶ αἱ χεῖρες ἡμῶν ἐψηλάφησαν, περὶ τοῦ λόγου τῆς ζωῆς·

The phrase “ὁ ἦν” is found in multiple other locations (see below) and never once is it considered a neuter pronoun:

Rev_1:4 ᾿Ιωάννης ταῖς ἑπτὰ ἐκκλησίαις ταῖς ἐν τῇ ᾿Ασίᾳ· χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη ἀπὸ ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος, καὶ ἀπὸ τῶν ἑπτὰ πνευμάτων, ἃ ἐνώπιον τοῦ θρόνου αὐτοῦ,
Rev_1:8 ᾿Εγώ εἰμι τὸ Α καὶ τὸ Ω, λέγει Κύριος ὁ Θεός, ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος, ὁ παντοκράτωρ.
Rev_4:8 καὶ τὰ τέσσαρα ζῷα, ἓν καθ᾿ ἓν αὐτῶν ἔχων ἀνὰ πτέρυγας ἕξ, κυκλόθεν καὶ ἔσωθεν γέμουσιν ὀφθαλμῶν, καὶ ἀνάπαυσιν οὐκ ἔχουσιν ἡμέρας καὶ νυκτὸς λέγοντες· ἅγιος, ἅγιος, ἅγιος Κύριος ὁ Θεὸς ὁ παντοκράτωρ, ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος.
Rev_11:17 λέγοντες· εὐχαριστοῦμέν σοι, Κύριε ὁ Θεὸς ὁ παντοκράτωρ, ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος, ὅτι εἴληφας τὴν δύναμίν σου τὴν μεγάλην καὶ ἐβασίλευσας,
Rev_16:5 καὶ ἤκουσα τοῦ ἀγγέλου τῶν ὑδάτων λέγοντος· δίκαιος εἶ, ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν, ὁ ὅσιος, ὅτι ταῦτα ἔκρινας·

Rev 1:4 John to the seven churches which are in Asia. Grace to you and peace from Him who is and who was and who is coming; and from the seven spirits which are before His throne;
Rev 1:8 I am the Alpha and Omega, the Beginning and the Ending, says the Lord, who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.
Rev 4:8 And each one of the four living creatures had six wings about him, and within being full of eyes. And they had no rest day and night, saying, Holy, holy, holy, Lord God, the Almighty, who was and is and is to come.
Rev 11:17 saying, We thank You, O Lord God Almighty, who are, and who was, and who is coming, because You took Your great power and reigned.
Rev 16:15 Behold, I am coming as a thief. Blessed is the one who watches and keeps his garments, lest he walk naked and they see his shame.

Notice the usage of personal pronouns each and every time.

Conclusion: Unitarians continue to be Judaizers in their view of the Word of God.
 
Is scrolls and scripts Old and New Testament?

Yes, do you believe that a dog bear puppies?
1. Here, Jesus as "Son of man" as His mother is human Mary. Is He man or not?
2. And as Jesus the "Son of God" as His Father is God. Is He God or not? Why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second one? Kindly explain.

Another simple logic, hope you will answer all these and not just evade it;
1. Jesus as in the "form of a servant," is He man or not?
2. Jesus as in the "form of God", is He God or not? Again why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second? Explain again.
ditto !
 
Is scrolls and scripts Old and New Testament?
Scrolls, Scripts, and Writings are other words for Bible. So don't say the word Bible is not in the Bible. The word Trinity would have been a very big deal and something that important would have been taught everywhere. And it is not taught anywhere. It would have been clearly stated in the Bible and in the earliest Christian creeds if the doctrine of the Trinity was genuine and central to Christian belief and especially if belief in it was necessary for salvation as many Trinitarians teach. God gave the Scriptures to the Jewish people, and the Jewish religion and worship that comes from that revelation does not contain any reference to or teachings about a triune God. Surely the Jewish people were qualified to read and understand it, but they never saw the doctrine of the Trinity,

1. Here, Jesus as "Son of man" as His mother is human Mary. Is He man or not?
2. And as Jesus the "Son of God" as His Father is God. Is He God or not? Why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second one? Kindly explain.

1.) There's nothing in Scripture that says if Mary was his mother then he had to be born a mother.
2.) There's nothing in Scripture that says if God was his father then he had to be born a God.


Another simple logic, hope you will answer all these and not just evade it;
1. Jesus as in the "form of a servant," is He man or not?
2. Jesus as in the "form of God", is He God or not? Again why the honest and logical answer to the first question cannot be applied to the second? Explain again.


1.) Yes Jesus had the outward appearance of a servant. Not the essential nature of a servant.
2.) Yes Jesus had the outward appearance of God. Not the essential nature of a god.
Wrong

Philippians 2:5-8
In your relationships with one another, have the same mindset as Christ Jesus:

6 Who, being in very nature God,
did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage;
7 rather, he made himself nothing
by taking the very nature of a servant,
being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man,
he humbled himself
by becoming obedient to death—
even death on a cross!
NIV

These translation capture the meaning of the text in its CONTEXT.


New International Version
rather, he made himself nothing by taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.

New Living Translation
Instead, he gave up his divine privileges; he took the humble position of a slave and was born as a human being. When he appeared in human form,

New King James Version
but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men.

King James Bible
But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:


Thayers Greek Lexicon
namely, τοῦ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ or τῆς μορφῆς τοῦ Θεοῦ, i. e. he laid aside equality with or the form of God (said of Christ), Philippians 2:7

Strongs Lexicon
From kenos; to make empty, i.e. (figuratively) to abase, neutralize, falsify -- make (of none effect, of no reputation, void), be in vain.

Louw Nida Greek Lexicon
87.70
κενόωb: to completely remove or eliminate elements of high status or rank by eliminating all privileges or prerogatives associated with such status or rank.

What Paul makes very clear in this passage is that in addition to being God, He became man. The Incarnation was not a subtraction of His deity but an addition of humanity to His nature. This passage does not say Jesus gave up His deity but that He laid aside His rights as Deity, assuming the form of a servant in verse 7. The text says He was in the form of God or being in the very nature of God in 2:6. Just as He took upon Himself the "form of a servant" which is a servant by nature, so the "form of God" is God by nature. The word "being" from the phrase: being in the very form of God is a present active participle. This means "continued existence" as God. What Paul is actually saying here is Jesus has always been and still is in the "form of God". If you continue reading the passage Paul really drives this point home so that his readers have no doubt what he is trying to get across to the Philippians. Paul says that every knee will bow and will one day Confess Jesus is LORD. Paul takes the passage in Isaiah 45:23 which clearly refers to Yahweh a name used for God alone and says this of Jesus. The fulfillment of YHWH in Isaiah 45 is none other than Jesus who is God(Yahweh) in the flesh.

He self limited His divine prerogatives via the Incarnation as per Phil 2. In other words did not use them to His advantage but was in submission to the Father for 33 years to accomplish our salvation. All the FULLNESS of DEITY dwells in bodily form. Col 1:19, 2:9. Jesus was and is fully God lacking nothing in His Deity.

Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6 who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men.

Even through Christ existed in the form of God He did not regard equality with God something that He needed to reach for or grasp. Why because it was already His and never gave that up for a millisecond.

Paul is using syllogisms from the text in Philippians 2.

Just as the term “form of God” in verse six does not mean “less than God” because of the phrase “equality with God" in the prior passage.

It goes to reason in the same way with the 2 phrases in the “form of a servant” and in the “likeness of man” in verse seven do not mean that Jesus was any “less than human,” but instead means He was the same or “equal with all humans.”

That is how the passage reads and how it is to be understood in its " CONTEXT ".

In Colossians 1:19 and Colossians 2:9 the Apostle Paul said, For in HIM (CHRIST) ALL of the “ fullness of deity dwells bodily. “Did Paul use the word fullness there to mean partially? NO as Jesus did not empty Himself of His Deity. Jesus Divinity is FULL, complete lacking in nothing. The ENTIRE Fullness of Deity dwells (is present) bodily in Jesus.

conclusion:When Jesus came to earth He laid aside or emptied Himself of something. There are many misconceptions at to what He set aside. It was not His Deity. Jesus could not empty Himself of His Deity - He could not stop being God. He was always God the Son. He could not exchange His Deity for His humanity. Neither did He set aside only some of His divine attributes and keep others. In addition, Jesus always knew He was God and possessed these divine attributes - He was not ignorant of who He was or what He could do. Moreover Jesus allowed the people to know that He had such powers. Neither did Jesus set aside the use of His relative attributes such as being all-powerful, all-knowing, and everywhere present. Those powers were always present with Him.When Jesus became a human being He divested Himself of certain rights as God the Son. This can be seen in three ways. First He restricted Himself to a human body with all its limitations. He gave up His position when He became a human being. Second He veiled or hid His glory from the people. Finally, He exercised His relative attributes only by the will of God the Father - never on His own initiative.

hope this helps !!!
 
Jesus did not physically exist before his birth, but rather was foreordained according to 1 Peter 1:20, which explains the “pre-existence” verses. God’s Word “Logos” in John 1:1 refers to God’s plan, wisdom, and intention. NOT a “second person” of the doctrine of men’s Trinity. That “Word” became flesh when Jesus was born and that was in John 1:14. The “Word” was with God in the beginning because God’s plan and purpose for salvation was with Him from the start. But not as a literal person yet.
So you still do not believe John when he revealed that "the Word was God" (John 1:1). You continue to expose yourself as being a Heretic. I highly advise you that you start believing the Bible, starting with John 1:1, the sooner the better.
 
I see that you're trying to run away once again from John 1:1. There's still the fact that "the Word was God" that you need to address. The Word was more than "godly", "the Word was God". Do you believe John 1:1 when it says "the Word was God"?

As for 1 John 1, if you're implying that John’s understanding of the Word went from being a Person (ουτος in John 1:2) to a “thing”, you're dead wrong.

Here's how 1 John 1:1 supports the Trinitarian view that the Word of God is a Person and not a thing:

Let's start by looking at the Greek version of 1 John 1:1. In particular, let's look at the first 2 Greek words ῞Ο ἦν that you claim refer to a “thing”.

1Jn 1:1 ῞Ο ἦν ἀπ᾿ ἀρχῆς, ὃ ἀκηκόαμεν, ὃ ἑωράκαμεν τοῖς ὀφθαλμοῖς ἡμῶν, ὃ ἐθεασάμεθα καὶ αἱ χεῖρες ἡμῶν ἐψηλάφησαν, περὶ τοῦ λόγου τῆς ζωῆς·

The phrase “ὁ ἦν” is found in multiple other locations (see below) and never once is it considered a neuter pronoun:

Rev_1:4 ᾿Ιωάννης ταῖς ἑπτὰ ἐκκλησίαις ταῖς ἐν τῇ ᾿Ασίᾳ· χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη ἀπὸ ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος, καὶ ἀπὸ τῶν ἑπτὰ πνευμάτων, ἃ ἐνώπιον τοῦ θρόνου αὐτοῦ,
Rev_1:8 ᾿Εγώ εἰμι τὸ Α καὶ τὸ Ω, λέγει Κύριος ὁ Θεός, ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος, ὁ παντοκράτωρ.
Rev_4:8 καὶ τὰ τέσσαρα ζῷα, ἓν καθ᾿ ἓν αὐτῶν ἔχων ἀνὰ πτέρυγας ἕξ, κυκλόθεν καὶ ἔσωθεν γέμουσιν ὀφθαλμῶν, καὶ ἀνάπαυσιν οὐκ ἔχουσιν ἡμέρας καὶ νυκτὸς λέγοντες· ἅγιος, ἅγιος, ἅγιος Κύριος ὁ Θεὸς ὁ παντοκράτωρ, ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος.
Rev_11:17 λέγοντες· εὐχαριστοῦμέν σοι, Κύριε ὁ Θεὸς ὁ παντοκράτωρ, ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος, ὅτι εἴληφας τὴν δύναμίν σου τὴν μεγάλην καὶ ἐβασίλευσας,
Rev_16:5 καὶ ἤκουσα τοῦ ἀγγέλου τῶν ὑδάτων λέγοντος· δίκαιος εἶ, ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν, ὁ ὅσιος, ὅτι ταῦτα ἔκρινας·

Rev 1:4 John to the seven churches which are in Asia. Grace to you and peace from Him who is and who was and who is coming; and from the seven spirits which are before His throne;
Rev 1:8 I am the Alpha and Omega, the Beginning and the Ending, says the Lord, who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.
Rev 4:8 And each one of the four living creatures had six wings about him, and within being full of eyes. And they had no rest day and night, saying, Holy, holy, holy, Lord God, the Almighty, who was and is and is to come.
Rev 11:17 saying, We thank You, O Lord God Almighty, who are, and who was, and who is coming, because You took Your great power and reigned.
Rev 16:15 Behold, I am coming as a thief. Blessed is the one who watches and keeps his garments, lest he walk naked and they see his shame.

Notice the usage of personal pronouns each and every time.

Conclusion: Unitarians continue to be Judaizers in their view of the Word of God.
I wasn't asking you, I was telling you. So you don't believe the Father is the only true God? Scripture states He is. Since there is no such being in all of Scripture known as the Word who is God then you have nothing to add any credibility to your opinions.

You have no examples of the Word being God in the Old Testament, you have no examples of the Word being God in the New Testament, you have no clear statements about God being a trinity, etc.
 
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