No, not at all.Nah. Peterlag said Jesus gave up his Messiahship which he did not yet have in order to take it up later such that he never gave it up but he took it back on anyhow. Now does that make sense? haha
No, not at all.Nah. Peterlag said Jesus gave up his Messiahship which he did not yet have in order to take it up later such that he never gave it up but he took it back on anyhow. Now does that make sense? haha
Sorry, not once have you answered any of the questions you were asked,Nope. Not dodging. I have addressed the topic getting close now to about a 100 times.
Nothing but bald denial.Nope not ignoring. There is no evidence of personality in Philippians 2:5-8
Again, the issue under discussion which you consistently dodge is personal pre-existence as the passage at Phil 2:5-8 clearly shows Christ existed in the form of God with a mind and thought before becoming a manNope. Not dodging. Here's my response again. There's no trinity. All things were not made by Jesus Christ. All things were made by the logos which is an it.
AbsurdReally... no connection. One is the beginning of the creation. And the other is the beginning of Jesus Christ.
well Pete John 1:14 disagree with you. John 1:14 "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth."John 1:3
“Everything came to be through it.” The logos is an “it” not a “him.”
Translators have deliberately chosen to use “him” because they wanted to emphasize that the Word was the male person we know as Jesus. This was a theological choice, not a linguistic one.
John 1:14 does not disagree with me. Your view of John 1:14 disagrees with me.well Pete John 1:14 disagree with you. John 1:14 "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth."
and in the very next verse, John said, John 1:15 "John bare witness of him, and cried, saying, This was he of whom I spake, He that cometh after me is preferred before me: for he was before me."
so, John was speaking of the Lord Jesus, Correct? yes, so, what was the Lord Jesus before he was MADE FLESH. let the bible speak. Hebrews 2:9 "But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man."
Pete, THINK NOW, there are only three entities, 1. God 2. Angels, and 3. us humans. Hebrews 2:9 clearly said JESUS was made lower than the angels. if Jesus was Made Lower than the angels...... logical reasoning, and common sense dictates that he JESUS had to be HIGHER than the angels before he was made LOWER than the angels..... and remember there are only three entities, 1. God 2. Angels, and 3. us humans. now 101G is sure that you don't need a slide ruler to figure that out as to what and who the Lord is and ... "was" .... just as John 1:1 clearly states...... WAS "God."
see how easy that was in using ..... common sense led by the wisdom of God?
so, the Lord Jesus is GOD in flesh, just as John 1:14 also states, not a it, but a WHO/PERSON. so, you're reproved.
101G.
one more,
It seems difficult for people to understand that John 1:1 is introducing the Gospel of John, and not the Book of Genesis. The topic of John is God (the Father, the only God) at work in the ministry of the man Jesus of Nazareth, not the creation of rocks, trees and stars.Absurd
John 1:3 (NASB95) — 3 All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being.
That clearly is creation
What would not dodging be to you? Me saying Oh right Jesus is God who per-existenced as the passage of Philippians 2:6 clearly says?Again, the issue under discussion which you consistently dodge is personal pre-existence as the passage at Phil 2:5-8 clearly shows Christ existed in the form of God with a mind and thought before becoming a man
You are nothing but a dodger when it comes to this issue.
It seems difficult for you to understand that the subject in John 1:1 is the Word, mentioned three times over. How many times must John refer to the Word in that verse before you get it?It seems difficult for people to understand that John 1:1 is introducing the Gospel of John, and not the Book of Genesis. The topic of John is God (the Father, the only God) at work in the ministry of the man Jesus of Nazareth, not the creation of rocks, trees and stars.
The wisdom of God is not a personal thing. My wisdom is not another one of me. My wisdom and my spirit that's the spirit of Christ is an it.Nothing but bald denial.
How does a non personal thing or a forethought consider or think?
did 101G write John 1:14? ... no, it;s God word, so take it up with him. .... (smile).John 1:14 does not disagree with me. Your view of John 1:14 disagrees with me.
Once? A hundred times I told you there's no pre-existence.Sorry, not once have you answered any of the questions you were asked,
and you have not addressed the thoughts and existence of Christ before becoming a man in the passage Phil 2:5-8
well Pete did not 101G say this? read post #447 again. but did 101G not affirm that the Son is God?It seems difficult for people to understand that John 1:1 is introducing the Gospel of John, and not the Book of Genesis. The topic of John is God (the Father, the only God) at work in the ministry of the man Jesus of Nazareth, not the creation of rocks, trees and stars.
Jesus Christ is not a lexical definition of logos. The verse does not say "In the beginning was Jesus." The "Word" is not synonymous with Jesus, or even the "Messiah."It seems difficult for you to understand that the subject in John 1:1 is the Word, mentioned three times over. How many times must John refer to the Word in that verse before you get it?
(John 1:1) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God
Also, your understanding of Greek is terrible. The proper translation of αυτος and αυτου in John 1:2-3 are "He" and "Him", not "It". The Uncreated Word of God is not a thing, He is a He. Do you understand?
Your continued refusal to understand all that proves the following about you:
- You have no understanding of Greek.
- You just brush aside the Greek language like it's useless.
- You place yourself above the Apostles.
- You're willing to change the very words of Apostle John to an "it".
- You degrade the Uncreated Word of God to an "it".
- You hide behind other people who possess the same ignorance of Greek.
well let's be clear, did JESUS pre-exist, or did the Christ pre-existed? your answer Pete.Once? A hundred times I told you there's no pre-existence.
You need to prove your assertions with Biblical verses. Without Biblical support, your assertions are automatically filed under Heresies.Jesus Christ is not a lexical definition of logos. The verse does not say "In the beginning was Jesus." The "Word" is not synonymous with Jesus, or even the "Messiah."
well let's see what the bible say about that.... Scripture, Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he."Jesus Christ is not a lexical definition of logos. The verse does not say "In the beginning was Jesus." The "Word" is not synonymous with Jesus, or even the "Messiah."
That is not answering the question or dealing with what is noted in the passageOnce? A hundred times I told you there's no pre-existence.