@Doug Brents
While I agree that all of the word of God from Genesis to Revelation is for all of God's people, yet, still the truth stands as far as to whom the apostles were sent to and to whom Paul was sent to.
Doug, you are voicing a personal opinion, while I gave you proof to whom John was sent to and to whom he wrote to. You can believe what you want to, and you will, yet personal opinions means nothing. but that it is your personal opinion. God is not impress with what we believe apart from his own testimony.When was 1 John written? Some time near the last decade of the first century, right? What was the composition of the Church near the end of the first century? There were a large number of Jews in the Church, but there were even more Gentiles in the Church by that time. 1 John was written to the Church at large, the righteous of both the Jews and the Gentiles. 1 John 2:2 is not addressed to the righteous Jews apart from the righteous Gentiles; "our" is the Church as a whole, as opposed to the world which is lost.
While I agree that all of the word of God from Genesis to Revelation is for all of God's people, yet, still the truth stands as far as to whom the apostles were sent to and to whom Paul was sent to.
Doug, you are in love more of what you think than what the word of God teaches. You give personal opinions while I gave to you proof.Yes, "world" in John 3:16 is every single person past, present, and future. And "whosoever" means anyone. Anyone can accept Jesus as their Lord, and God will forgive and save them.
I could have spent more time with that point, but I now see it would have been a totally waste of precious time. Enough said.John 3:16~means what to you? World to you means that he loves every single person, past, present and future? When we know this is far from the truth. World is John 3:16 simply means all without distinction, not all without exceptions as you have been taught to say. Jesus was teaching Nicodemus and us, that God's love was not limited to the Jewish nation as it was in the OT. In the NT he is God both of the Jews and Gentiles, yet not all from each, only the children of his promises are counted for the true Israel of God.
Romans 3:29
“Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:”