Context (is 'king'?):
"The Same [ Word ] was in the beginning With God { The Father? }. All things
were made By Him; and Without Him was not any thing made that was made."
(Context 'right After' v 1 = vs. 2-3 in John AV!)
Should we just simply
ignore this,
as well as "The
Creator/Creation" in
Colossians 1:12-18 AV?
+
Precious friend, we have
no problem with Capitalization Of our LORD Jesus Christ, because
In The OT, we have prayerfully and
Carefully studied The Following Truth:
"...The LORD appeared unto him [ 99-year-old Abraham ch 17, v 24 ] in the plains of Mamre..." (Genesis 18:1 AV) Which Eternal Person did "Abraham see and talk to"? The Father or
The SON?:
1) The Inerrant Bible Of God Almighty Teaches The Truth:
"No man hath seen God at any time!..." (John 1:18 AV) Must Refer "To The Father" Since:
2) Must Be The LORD Jesus Christ Then, Because After "Communing With Abraham"
and Then "Went His Way" (vs 16-17 and 33) - "Sodom and Gomorrah" (ch 19 AV),
Correct? We now Have [ After Lot and his family is Removed! ] This Truth:
"Then The LORD [ The SON On the earth,] rained upon Sodom and upon Gomorrah
brimstone and fire from The LORD [ The Father On The Throne ] out of heaven;"
(Genesis 19:24 AV)
Thus, we,
Just As The Father Does, Call Him LORD, Because:
Because of This Plain and Clear [ Something In Scripture ] Truth!:
"...Unto The SON He [ The Father v 1] Saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and
ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of Thy kingdom" (Hebrews 1:8 AV)
Precious friend why in Heaven's Name would I believe "nothing In Scripture directly calls
Jesus God",
When The Father Himself "Directly Did So!" ???
We are all praying for
@Wrangler,
@Keiw1,
@APAK,
@Runningman,
@MatthewG,
@Peterlag, and
@Pancho Frijoles, and
all jw's to please prayerfully and
Very Carefully Reconsider, Because Of:
Thank
The LORD Jesus Christ, "He IS God, The Righteous Judge!"
(John 5:22-23 cp Revelation 20:11-12a AV)
Amen.
