EclipseEventSigns
Well-known member
There's some really strange stuff Jesus says in the New Testament. Doesn't make a lick of sense when you study it.
[Jhn 6:31-32 LSB] "Our fathers ate the manna in the wilderness; as it is written, ‘He gave them bread from heaven to eat.’" 32 Jesus then said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, it was not Moses who gave you the bread from heaven, but my Father gives you the true bread from heaven."
What is Jesus trying to say here? Is he denying that Moses had anything to do with the manna which fed the nation of Israel after they left Egypt? That was a major miracle which every child learned early on about the history of the Jewish people. How could Jesus get away with such a claim? And his sentence makes no sense when he uses the word "but". He is trying to contrast two similar ideas. Yet, the statements do not set out a contrast. He says Moses didn't give the bread. Then he states that the Heavenly Father gives true bread. Ok. Those are two separate ideas.
It is impossible to reconcile- based on the Greek text. But if one considers the Aramaic text, there is a very simple answer. It's a pretty ludicrous statement but - the New Testament was originally written in Aramaic. Not Greek. And this is one of hundreds of examples.
In Aramaic, there is no differentiation between lower case and upper case letters. Neither is there any punctuation. So declarative statements and interrogative statements can only be determined through context. In other words, there are no question marks in Aramaic. And you have to figure out through context if someone is asking a question or not. And this is the case here.
The Aramaic actually reads:
Jesus then said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, did not Moses give you the bread from heaven? But my Father gives you the true bread from heaven."
Now it makes complete sense. Jesus strongly states the fact that Moses was involved with meeting the physical needs of the Israelites. But what is more important is that the Heavenly Father meets the spiritual needs of the Israelites. And this is only seen in the Aramaic text. It can read both ways. The Greek translator did not recognize this when looking at the original and provided the simplest and most common solution - a declarative statement. And missed out the actual point of what Jesus was saying.
[Jhn 6:31-32 LSB] "Our fathers ate the manna in the wilderness; as it is written, ‘He gave them bread from heaven to eat.’" 32 Jesus then said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, it was not Moses who gave you the bread from heaven, but my Father gives you the true bread from heaven."
What is Jesus trying to say here? Is he denying that Moses had anything to do with the manna which fed the nation of Israel after they left Egypt? That was a major miracle which every child learned early on about the history of the Jewish people. How could Jesus get away with such a claim? And his sentence makes no sense when he uses the word "but". He is trying to contrast two similar ideas. Yet, the statements do not set out a contrast. He says Moses didn't give the bread. Then he states that the Heavenly Father gives true bread. Ok. Those are two separate ideas.
It is impossible to reconcile- based on the Greek text. But if one considers the Aramaic text, there is a very simple answer. It's a pretty ludicrous statement but - the New Testament was originally written in Aramaic. Not Greek. And this is one of hundreds of examples.
In Aramaic, there is no differentiation between lower case and upper case letters. Neither is there any punctuation. So declarative statements and interrogative statements can only be determined through context. In other words, there are no question marks in Aramaic. And you have to figure out through context if someone is asking a question or not. And this is the case here.
The Aramaic actually reads:
Jesus then said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, did not Moses give you the bread from heaven? But my Father gives you the true bread from heaven."
Now it makes complete sense. Jesus strongly states the fact that Moses was involved with meeting the physical needs of the Israelites. But what is more important is that the Heavenly Father meets the spiritual needs of the Israelites. And this is only seen in the Aramaic text. It can read both ways. The Greek translator did not recognize this when looking at the original and provided the simplest and most common solution - a declarative statement. And missed out the actual point of what Jesus was saying.
