EclipseEventSigns
Well-known member
There's some really strange stuff in the New Testament that doesn't make a lick of sense when you really study it. I bet most people have never even batted an eyelid after reading John 7:25-29.
[Jhn 7:25-29 LSB] 25 So some of the people of Jerusalem were saying, "Is this not the man whom they are seeking to kill? 26 "And look, He is speaking openly, and they are saying nothing to Him. Do the rulers truly know that this is the Christ? 27 "However, we know where this man is from; but whenever the Christ comes, no one knows where He is from."
28 Then Jesus cried out in the temple, teaching and saying, "You both know Me and know where I am from; and I have not come of Myself, but He who sent Me is true, whom you do not know. 29 "I know Him, because I am from Him, and He sent Me."
Some of the people paying attention were wondering why the religious leaders were allowing Jesus to claim that he was the Messiah. Did they know something that the common people didn't? After all, they all knew that Jesus was from the hicksville of Galilee. But no one knew where Messiah would actually come from. So how could he actually be the Messiah?
Jesus boldly confirms that they are correct, they are right and do know where he's come from confirming for them that he couldn't possibly be the Messiah. But then he gets confused and says they don't actually know who sent him or where he's from. Makes absolutely no sense whatsoever.
It is impossible to understand - based on the Greek text. But if one considers the Aramaic text, there is a very simple answer. It's a pretty ludicrous statement but - the New Testament was originally written in Aramaic. Not Greek. And this is one of hundreds of examples.
In Aramaic, there is no differentiation between lower case and upper case letters. Neither is there any punctuation. So declarative statements and interrogative statements can only be determined through context. In other words, there are no question marks in Aramaic. And you have to figure out through context if someone is asking a question or not. And this is the case here.
The Aramaic actually reads:
Then Jesus cried out in the temple, teaching and saying, "Do you know Me and do you know where I am from? Yet, I have not come of Myself. But the truth is, that One sent me whom you do not know. 29 "I know Him, because I am from Him, and He sent Me."
Makes a whole lot more sense now, doesn't it? And the thing is that the Aramaic can read both ways. But the Greek can only be read as declarative statements. This shows that the Greek is a translation. The translator saw the Aramaic and did not recognize that the words of Jesus were in the form of questions. Within the context of the entire exchange, the Aramaic provides the only answer to the problem that makes any sense out of the text.
[Jhn 7:25-29 LSB] 25 So some of the people of Jerusalem were saying, "Is this not the man whom they are seeking to kill? 26 "And look, He is speaking openly, and they are saying nothing to Him. Do the rulers truly know that this is the Christ? 27 "However, we know where this man is from; but whenever the Christ comes, no one knows where He is from."
28 Then Jesus cried out in the temple, teaching and saying, "You both know Me and know where I am from; and I have not come of Myself, but He who sent Me is true, whom you do not know. 29 "I know Him, because I am from Him, and He sent Me."
Some of the people paying attention were wondering why the religious leaders were allowing Jesus to claim that he was the Messiah. Did they know something that the common people didn't? After all, they all knew that Jesus was from the hicksville of Galilee. But no one knew where Messiah would actually come from. So how could he actually be the Messiah?
Jesus boldly confirms that they are correct, they are right and do know where he's come from confirming for them that he couldn't possibly be the Messiah. But then he gets confused and says they don't actually know who sent him or where he's from. Makes absolutely no sense whatsoever.
It is impossible to understand - based on the Greek text. But if one considers the Aramaic text, there is a very simple answer. It's a pretty ludicrous statement but - the New Testament was originally written in Aramaic. Not Greek. And this is one of hundreds of examples.
In Aramaic, there is no differentiation between lower case and upper case letters. Neither is there any punctuation. So declarative statements and interrogative statements can only be determined through context. In other words, there are no question marks in Aramaic. And you have to figure out through context if someone is asking a question or not. And this is the case here.
The Aramaic actually reads:
Then Jesus cried out in the temple, teaching and saying, "Do you know Me and do you know where I am from? Yet, I have not come of Myself. But the truth is, that One sent me whom you do not know. 29 "I know Him, because I am from Him, and He sent Me."
Makes a whole lot more sense now, doesn't it? And the thing is that the Aramaic can read both ways. But the Greek can only be read as declarative statements. This shows that the Greek is a translation. The translator saw the Aramaic and did not recognize that the words of Jesus were in the form of questions. Within the context of the entire exchange, the Aramaic provides the only answer to the problem that makes any sense out of the text.
