synergy
Active Member
Do you believe John when he wrote "Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος"? Yes or no?
Trinitarian Training
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Runningman
Active Member
Revelation 19 makes no mention of Jesus. Here's a question... why is the rider on the white horse standing in heaven (Revelation 19:11) while Jesus is standing on earth (Revelation 17:14). Could it be because they aren't in the same place at the same time?
Runningman
Active Member
They didn't have upper case and lowercase in koine Greek. An English translation would be "the word was godly" after taking into account everything the Bible says about the word.
You really are rejecting all sensibility and straightforward passages in your denials. I keep reminding you that it is the ambiguity of Jesus as divine and human that leads to recognize the Triune nature of God. You simply gloss over the passages in our discussions and pretend that a different passage nullifies the passages that show Jesus as God. That type of argument falls short of being convincing.
I deny your illogical arguments as having sensibility. Duh.
Runningman
Active Member
So what are you not understanding then? John 1:3 says everything was created. John 1:14 says the word became flesh. Therefore the word is not flesh unless you're saying the word is created. Either way you go you're caught in a pickle. You run one way the word is created, you run the other way Jesus was created.
synergy
Active Member
John wrote "THEOS" (God), not εὐσεβής (godly). So my question again is: Do you believe John when he wrote the Word was God or will you continue to mutilate John's wording of John 1:1?
synergy
Active Member
Revelation is a book of visions, not a stage play demanding the characters remain in one physical spot at a time. Earthly and heavenly visions complement each other—they are not chronological contradictions. To say Christ cannot appear in different visions is to misunderstand apocalyptic literature.
So we're back to you not being able to differentiate between the written/spoken word of God (Bible, for example) (λογον) and Jesus.
Runningman
Active Member
You should study theology less and Greek more, "Mr. Expert." Care you explain to us what the below verse says?
2 Peter 2
9if all this is so, then the Lord knows how to rescue the godly from trials and to hold the unrighteous for punishment on the day of judgment.
2 Corinthians 1
12Now this is our boast: Our conscience testifies that we have conducted ourselves in the world, and especially in our relations with you, with integrity and godly sincerity. We have done so, relying not on worldly wisdom but on God’s grace.
2 Corinthians 7
9As it is, I rejoice, not because you were grieved, but because you were grieved into repenting. For you felt a godly grief, so that you suffered no loss through us.
And there is more too. The word isn't God as the Bible proves, but rather is godly. I think you know that, too. Next fallacy.
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Runningman
Active Member
Jesus and the rider on the white horse aren't in the same location, chronologically speaking. Read From Revelation 17 to 19 and you'll see.
synergy
Active Member
As usual, you continue to run away from John 1:1 in one way or another. You have forewarned us that you will do that by calling yourself the Running Man. Carry on with your running away antics.You should study theology less and Greek more, "Mr. Expert." Care you explain to us what the below verse says?
2 Peter 29if all this is so, then the Lord knows how to rescue the godly from trials and to hold the unrighteous for punishment on the day of judgment.2 Corinthians 112Now this is our boast: Our conscience testifies that we have conducted ourselves in the world, and especially in our relations with you, with integrity and godly sincerity. We have done so, relying not on worldly wisdom but on God’s grace.2 Corinthians 79As it is, I rejoice, not because you were grieved, but because you were grieved into repenting. For you felt a godly grief, so that you suffered no loss through us.
And there is more too. The word isn't God as the Bible proves, but rather is godly. I think you know that, too. Next fallacy.
synergy
Active Member
So what's your point?
Runningman
Active Member
Means Jesus isn't God.
Runningman
Active Member
No idea what you're talking about. I got you right where I want you because your attempts to pen idolatry into scripture aren't working out the way you thought they would. You can't prove the "Word is God" based on the language on John 1:1 since the Bible uses theos for godly, not only god or God.
synergy
Active Member
People are godly, not that the Word is godly.You should study theology less and Greek more, "Mr. Expert." Care you explain to us what the below verse says?
2 Peter 29if all this is so, then the Lord knows how to rescue the godly from trials and to hold the unrighteous for punishment on the day of judgment.
Paul is godly, not that the Word is godly.
People felt a godly sorrow, not that the Word is godly.
More proofs that it's not the Word that is godly? I think I've proven my point.
More miserable failures on your part.
As usual, you continue to run away from John 1:1 that proves that the Word was God ("THEOS"), not godly (εὐσεβής). So my question again is: Do you believe John when he wrote the Word was God ("THEOS") or will you continue to mutilate John's wording of John 1:1?
