The Hypostatic Union- the 2 Natures in Christ

I like how only those who actually try to teach something here are heretics.

And, how its the opinionated, creed citers, that are right on.

Odd....
That would be admittedly you because you admited the following admiration for the heretic Nestorius:
I am getting to like this Nestorius guy. 🧑‍🎨
I told you that you set yourself up too easily to be ridiculed as a Nestorian. 😉
 
Then Heb.2:17 is a lie. He didn't become as a man during the Incarnation. Either that or we are all divine persons.

And Nestorious taught He was two persons. I'm saying for a limited time only He limited Himself to being as a human person. There is a difference.
Nestorius was a pioneer of the concept of the two natures of Christ....
Pioneers need to be followed by others, those who will refine and perfect the original understanding.

He had some weaknesses in his thinking that he needed to work out, but he had enough to slam the Mary worshipers of Rome who wanted everybody to believe she was the "mother of God." It was the RCC that wanted to drag his name in the mud. And, some today still will repeat the RCC''s contempt, while failing to see his contribution in better understanding that Jesus has two natures in union.
 
The two natures of Christ...
In basic terms the concept of hypostatic union states that Jesus Christ is both fully God and fully man.


Interesting point:

In one sense.. one could say Jesus is like a man who is a medium. A medium who is constantly giving a seance of God, by God.

🧑‍🎨
 
That can only be true if He was made to be as a human person.
Wherefore (ὅθεν)
oP. Often in Hebrews.
In all things to be made like unto his brethren (κατὰ πάντα τοῖς ἀδελφοῖς ὁμοιωθῆναι)
Comp. Php_2:7, ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπων γενόμενος having become in the likeness of men. Likeness is asserted without qualification.

There was a complete and real likeness to humanity, a likeness which was closest just where the traces of the curse of sin were most apparent - in poverty, temptation, and violent and unmerited death.

It behooved (ὤφειλεν)
Indicating an obligation growing out of the position which Christ assumed: something which he owed to his position as the helper of his people.
That he might be a merciful and faithful high priest (ἵνα ἐλεήμων γένηται καὶ πιστὸς ἀρχιερεὺς)
Rend. that he might be compassionate, and so (in consequence of being compassionate), a faithful high priest. The keynote of the Epistle, the high-priesthood of Christ, which is intimated in Heb_1:3, is here for the first time distinctly struck. Having shown that Christ delivers from the fear of death by nullifying the accusing power of sin, he now shows that he does this in his capacity of high priest, for which office it was necessary that he should be made like unto his human brethren. In the O.T. economy, the fear of death was especially connected with the approach to God of an impure worshipper (see Num_18:3, Num_18:5). This fear was mitigated or removed by the intervention of the Levitical priest, since it was the special charge of the priest so to discharge the service of the tabernacle that there might be no outbreak of divine wrath on the children of Israel (Num_18:5).Γένηται might show himself to be, or prove to be. The idea of compassion as an attribute of priests is not found in the O.T. On the contrary, the fault of the priests was their frequent lack of sympathy with the people (see Hos_4:4-9). In the later Jewish history, and in N.T. times, the priestly aristocracy of the Sadducees was notoriously unfeeling and cruel. The idea of a compassionate and faithful high priest would appeal powerfully to Jewish readers, who knew the deficiency of the Aaronic priesthood in that particular. Πιστὸς faithful, as an attribute of a priest, appears in 1Sa_2:35. The idea there is fidelity. He will do all that is in God's mind. Comp. Heb_3:2. This implies trustworthiness. The idea here is, faithful in filling out the true ideal of the priesthood (Heb_5:1, Heb_5:2), by being not a mere ceremonialist but a compassionate man.
In things pertaining to God (τὰ πρὸς τὸν θεόν)
Comp. Rom_15:17. A technical phrase in Jewish liturgical language to denote the functions of worship. Const. with a faithful high priest, not with compassionate.
To make reconciliation (εἰς τὸ ἱλάσκεθαι)
See on propitiation, Rom_3:25. The verb only here and Luk_18:13.
VWP

To be made like unto his brethren (tois adelphois homoiōthēnai). First aorist passive infinitive of homoioō, old and common verb from homoios (like), as in Mat_6:8, with the associative instrumental case as here. Christ, our Elder Brother, resembles us in reality (Php_2:7 “in the likeness of men”) as we shall resemble him in the end (Rom_8:29 “first-born among many brethren”; 1Jn_3:2 “like him”), where the same root is used as here (hoiōma, homoios). That he might be (hina genētai). Purpose clause with hina and the second aorist middle subjunctive of ginomai, to become, “that he might become.”

That was only possible by being like his brethren in actual human nature.

Heb 2:17 And for this reason, Rebbe, Melech HaMoshiach was obliged to become like the Achim b'Moshiach [2:11] in every respect, that he might become a Kohen Gadol rachaman v'ne'eman before Hashem in order to make kapporah for the chatta'im of HaAm. [Isa 53:8; 49:7]
Heb 2:18 For, because Rebbe, Melech HaMoshiach himself has endured, being tested in the yissurim (sufferings) of his nefesh [YESHAYAH 53:10,11], he is able to come to the ezrah (aid) of the ones being tested.


Well done @sawdust
 
Then Heb.2:17 is a lie. He didn't become as a man during the Incarnation. Either that or we are all divine persons.

And Nestorious taught He was two persons. I'm saying for a limited time only He limited Himself to being as a human person. There is a difference.
Where does the Bible say Jesus is a human person ?

next
 
You set yourself up too easily to be ridiculed as a Nestorian.

Christ did self-empty himself functionally to a level of a servant, not ontologically to the level of stripping himself of His Divine Personhood. He cannot cease to be the Person He is, the Uncreated Word of God.
yes the empty god who had no divine functions ,capacity or capabilities- stripped way for 33 years. KENOSIS HERESY.
 
Nestorius was a pioneer of the concept of the two natures of Christ....
Pioneers need to be followed by others, those who will refine and perfect the original understanding.

He had some weaknesses in his thinking that he needed to work out, but he had enough to slam the Mary worshipers of Rome who wanted everybody to believe she was the "mother of God." It was the RCC that wanted to drag his name in the mud. And, some today still will repeat the RCC''s contempt, while failing to see his contribution in better understanding that Jesus has two natures in union.
This goes back to who exactly was Mary a mother of. Was she a mother of a person or of nature? A mother of a person obviously. Who gives birth to a nature? No one. So who is that person she gave birth to? Was he a purely human, a human/Divine dual person schizophrenic, or a purely God Person, the Uncreated Word of God? The answer is obvious to whoever is Christian. Hence, the name Theotokos.
 
Wherefore (ὅθεν)
oP. Often in Hebrews.
In all things to be made like unto his brethren (κατὰ πάντα τοῖς ἀδελφοῖς ὁμοιωθῆναι)
Comp. Php_2:7, ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπων γενόμενος having become in the likeness of men. Likeness is asserted without qualification.

There was a complete and real likeness to humanity, a likeness which was closest just where the traces of the curse of sin were most apparent - in poverty, temptation, and violent and unmerited death.

It behooved (ὤφειλεν)
Indicating an obligation growing out of the position which Christ assumed: something which he owed to his position as the helper of his people.
That he might be a merciful and faithful high priest (ἵνα ἐλεήμων γένηται καὶ πιστὸς ἀρχιερεὺς)
Rend. that he might be compassionate, and so (in consequence of being compassionate), a faithful high priest. The keynote of the Epistle, the high-priesthood of Christ, which is intimated in Heb_1:3, is here for the first time distinctly struck. Having shown that Christ delivers from the fear of death by nullifying the accusing power of sin, he now shows that he does this in his capacity of high priest, for which office it was necessary that he should be made like unto his human brethren. In the O.T. economy, the fear of death was especially connected with the approach to God of an impure worshipper (see Num_18:3, Num_18:5). This fear was mitigated or removed by the intervention of the Levitical priest, since it was the special charge of the priest so to discharge the service of the tabernacle that there might be no outbreak of divine wrath on the children of Israel (Num_18:5).Γένηται might show himself to be, or prove to be. The idea of compassion as an attribute of priests is not found in the O.T. On the contrary, the fault of the priests was their frequent lack of sympathy with the people (see Hos_4:4-9). In the later Jewish history, and in N.T. times, the priestly aristocracy of the Sadducees was notoriously unfeeling and cruel. The idea of a compassionate and faithful high priest would appeal powerfully to Jewish readers, who knew the deficiency of the Aaronic priesthood in that particular. Πιστὸς faithful, as an attribute of a priest, appears in 1Sa_2:35. The idea there is fidelity. He will do all that is in God's mind. Comp. Heb_3:2. This implies trustworthiness. The idea here is, faithful in filling out the true ideal of the priesthood (Heb_5:1, Heb_5:2), by being not a mere ceremonialist but a compassionate man.
In things pertaining to God (τὰ πρὸς τὸν θεόν)
Comp. Rom_15:17. A technical phrase in Jewish liturgical language to denote the functions of worship. Const. with a faithful high priest, not with compassionate.
To make reconciliation (εἰς τὸ ἱλάσκεθαι)
See on propitiation, Rom_3:25. The verb only here and Luk_18:13.
VWP

To be made like unto his brethren (tois adelphois homoiōthēnai). First aorist passive infinitive of homoioō, old and common verb from homoios (like), as in Mat_6:8, with the associative instrumental case as here. Christ, our Elder Brother, resembles us in reality (Php_2:7 “in the likeness of men”) as we shall resemble him in the end (Rom_8:29 “first-born among many brethren”; 1Jn_3:2 “like him”), where the same root is used as here (hoiōma, homoios). That he might be (hina genētai). Purpose clause with hina and the second aorist middle subjunctive of ginomai, to become, “that he might become.”

That was only possible by being like his brethren in actual human nature.

Heb 2:17 And for this reason, Rebbe, Melech HaMoshiach was obliged to become like the Achim b'Moshiach [2:11] in every respect, that he might become a Kohen Gadol rachaman v'ne'eman before Hashem in order to make kapporah for the chatta'im of HaAm. [Isa 53:8; 49:7]
Heb 2:18 For, because Rebbe, Melech HaMoshiach himself has endured, being tested in the yissurim (sufferings) of his nefesh [YESHAYAH 53:10,11], he is able to come to the ezrah (aid) of the ones being tested.


Well done @sawdust
So you agree with @sawdust that Jesus is a human Person and a Divine Person ? yes or no

Thanks
 
Nestorius was a pioneer of the concept of the two natures of Christ....
Pioneers need to be followed by others, those who will refine and perfect the original understanding.

He had some weaknesses in his thinking that he needed to work out, but he had enough to slam the Mary worshipers of Rome who wanted everybody to believe she was the "mother of God." It was the RCC that wanted to drag his name in the mud. And, some today still will repeat the RCC''s contempt, while failing to see his contribution in better understanding that Jesus has two natures in union.
Wrong Jesus and the Apostles were the pioneers with the teaching of the 2 natures in Christ. John spells it out in His Prologue. Paul does the same in Colossians 1-2 and so does the Author of Hebrews in 1-2. John does the same thing in 1 John 4:1-5 and 2 John 7.

hope this helps !!!
 
So, in all things like us means only what, 95% of being a human person?
I'm not into saying that Christ has a Dual Personality schizophrenic condition. Therefore, that would be 0% human person and 100% God Person in my view. What would it be in your view?
The way you keep interpreting what we say you'd think @GeneZ and I have been saying 'He threw His Deity over the back of the throne in Heaven before He came to earth!'

Doh!

:)
So you agree that his kenosis is functional, not ontological, right? That would confirm that Christ was, is, and always will be for all eternity past and future the One God Person who is the Uncreated Word of God.
 
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After He ascended and was seated at the right hand of the Father?
Then Jesus ceased being God as a man.

Jesus is now God being the man, and the man being God.

For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form, and in Christ you have been
brought to fullness. He is the head over every power and authority."
Colossians 2:9-10

Jesus no longer has to pray as a man to the Father for his every need.
For He has returned to being Lord God over all creation.
a perfect description of the KENOSIS HERESY being espoused.
 
The term kenosis refers to the doctrine of Christ’s “self-emptying” in His incarnation. The word comes from the Greek of Philippians 2:7, which says that Jesus “emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men” (ESV). The word translated “emptied” is a form of kenoó, from which we get the word kenosis.

Here! Get some of this and
View attachment 447open your Bible to Philippians 2:7!

Many translations are heretical!

https://biblehub.com/philippians/2-7.htm
Philippians 2:5-8
In your relationships with one another, have the same mindset as Christ Jesus:

6 Who, being in very nature God,
did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage;
7 rather, he made himself nothing
by taking the very nature of a servant,
being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man,
he humbled himself
by becoming obedient to death—
even death on a cross!
NIV

These translation capture the meaning of the text in its CONTEXT.


New International Version
rather, he made himself nothing by taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.

New Living Translation
Instead, he gave up his divine privileges; he took the humble position of a slave and was born as a human being. When he appeared in human form,

New King James Version
but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men.

King James Bible
But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:


Thayers Greek Lexicon
namely, τοῦ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ or τῆς μορφῆς τοῦ Θεοῦ, i. e. he laid aside equality with or the form of God (said of Christ), Philippians 2:7

Strongs Lexicon
From kenos; to make empty, i.e. (figuratively) to abase, neutralize, falsify -- make (of none effect, of no reputation, void), be in vain.

Louw Nida Greek Lexicon
87.70
κενόωb: to completely remove or eliminate elements of high status or rank by eliminating all privileges or prerogatives associated with such status or rank.

What Paul makes very clear in this passage is that in addition to being God, He became man. The Incarnation was not a subtraction of His deity but an addition of humanity to His nature. This passage does not say Jesus gave up His deity but that He laid aside His rights as Deity, assuming the form of a servant in verse 7. The text says He was in the form of God or being in the very nature of God in 2:6. Just as He took upon Himself the "form of a servant" which is a servant by nature, so the "form of God" is God by nature. The word "being" from the phrase: being in the very form of God is a present active participle. This means "continued existence" as God. What Paul is actually saying here is Jesus has always been and still is in the "form of God". If you continue reading the passage Paul really drives this point home so that his readers have no doubt what he is trying to get across to the Philippians. Paul says that every knee will bow and will one day Confess Jesus is LORD. Paul takes the passage in Isaiah 45:23 which clearly refers to Yahweh a name used for God alone and says this of Jesus. The fulfillment of YHWH in Isaiah 45 is none other than Jesus who is God(Yahweh) in the flesh.

He self limited His divine prerogatives via the Incarnation as per Phil 2. In other words did not use them to His advantage but was in submission to the Father for 33 years to accomplish our salvation. All the FULLNESS of DEITY dwells in bodily form. Col 1:19;2:9. Jesus was and is fully God lacking nothing in His Deity.

Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6 who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men.

Even through Christ existed in the form of God He did not regard equality with God something that He needed to reach for or grasp. Why because it was already His and never gave that up for a millisecond.

Paul is using syllogisms from the text in Philippians 2.

Just as the term “form of God” in verse six does not mean “less than God” because of the phrase “equality with God" in the prior passage.

It goes to reason in the same way with the 2 phrases in the “form of a servant” and in the “likeness of man” in verse seven do not mean that Jesus was any “less than human,” but instead means He was the same or “equal with all humans.”

That is how the passage reads and how it is to be understood in its " CONTEXT ".

In Colossians 1:19 and Colossians 2:9 the Apostle Paul said, For in HIM (CHRIST) ALL of the “ fullness of deity dwells bodily. “Did Paul use the word fullness there to mean partially? NO as Jesus did not empty Himself of His Deity. Jesus Divinity is FULL, complete lacking in nothing. The ENTIRE Fullness of Deity dwells (is present) bodily in Jesus.

conclusion:When Jesus came to earth He laid aside or emptied Himself of something. There are many misconceptions at to what He set aside. It was not His Deity. Jesus could not empty Himself of His Deity - He could not stop being God. He was always God the Son. He could not exchange His Deity for His humanity. Neither did He set aside only some of His divine attributes and keep others. In addition, Jesus always knew He was God and possessed these divine attributes - He was not ignorant of who He was or what He could do. Moreover Jesus allowed the people to know that He had such powers. Neither did Jesus set aside the use of His relative attributes such as being all-powerful, all-knowing, and everywhere present. Those powers were always present with Him.When Jesus became a human being He divested Himself of certain rights as God the Son. This can be seen in three ways. First He restricted Himself to a human body with all its limitations. He gave up His position when He became a human being. Second He veiled or hid His glory from the people. Finally, He exercised His relative attributes only by the will of God the Father - never on His own initiative.

hope this helps !!!
 
The two natures of Christ...
In basic terms the concept of hypostatic union states that Jesus Christ is both fully God and fully man.


Interesting point:

In one sense.. one could say Jesus is like a man who is a medium. A medium who is constantly giving a seance of God, by God.

🧑‍🎨
Now you're into seances?
 
Colossians 2:9
King James Bible
For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily

Now read the Greek below on the present ongoing meaning of DWELLS . The bodily dwelling of Deity is permanent not temporary. The Incarnation was PERMANENT.

κατοικεῖ (katoikei)
Verb - Present Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular
Strong's Greek 2730: To dwell in, settle in, be established in (permanently), inhabit. From kata and oikeo; to house permanently, i.e. Reside.

8.2 σωματικός, ή, όν; σωματικῶςa: (derivatives of σῶμαa ‘body,’ 8.1) pertaining to a physical body—‘bodily, physical, bodily form.’[1] Louw Nida

Expositor's Greek Testament
Colossians 2:9. in Him and in Him alone.—κατοικεῖ: “permanently dwells”. The reference is to the Exalted State, not only on account of the present, but of the context and Paul’s Christology generally.—πᾶν τὸ πλήρωμα τῆς θεότητος: “all the fulness of the Godhead”. πᾶν is emphatic, the whole fulness dwells in Christ.

Body
sōmatikṓs (an adverb, derived from 4984 /sōmatikós which is an adjective derived from 4983 /sṓma, "body") – bodily(used only in Col 2:9)Loew & Nida Greek Lexicon

Never once in the NT is soma ever used of something nonphysical or immaterial .

Paul is talking in Col chapters 2-3 about the glorified resurrected Christ now seated at the right hand of God not the earthly Christ pre resurrection. This is a slam dunk that He is in a human glorified resurrection body and that He continues to have all the fullness of Deity dwelling bodily in the present.

Bodily (σωματικῶς) In bodily fashion or bodily-wise. The verse contains two distinct assertions: 1. That the fullness of the Godhead eternally dwells in Christ. The present tense κατοικεῖ dwelleth, is used like ἐστιν is (the image), Colossians 1:15, to denote an eternal and essential characteristic of Christ's being. The indwelling of the divine fullness in Him is characteristic of Him as Christ, from all ages and to all ages. Hence the fullness of the Godhead dwelt in Him before His incarnation, when He was "in the form of God" (Philippians 2:6). The Word in the beginning, was with God and was God (John 1:1). It dwelt in Him during His incarnation. It was the Word that became flesh and dwelt among us, full of grace and truth, and His glory which was beheld was the glory as of the Only begotten of the Father (John 1:14; compare 1 John 1:1-3). The fullness of the Godhead dwells in His glorified humanity in heaven.

2. The fullness of the Godhead dwells in Him in a bodily way, clothed the body. This means that it dwells in Him as one having a human body. This could not be true of His preincarnate state, when He was "in the form of God," for the human body was taken on by Him in the fullness of time, when "He became in the likeness of men" (Philippians 2:7), when the Word became flesh. The fullness of the Godhead dwelt in His person from His birth to His ascension. He carried His human body with Him into heaven, and in His glorified body now and ever dwells the fullness of the Godhead. Vincent Greek Word Studies

(2:9) Commenting on the contents of this verse, Lightfoot says; “The apostle justifies the foregoing charge that the doctrine was not according to Christ: ‘In Christ dwells the whole plērōma (πληρωμα) (fulness, plenitude), the entire fulness of the Godhead, whereas they represent it to you as dispersed among several spiritual agencies. Christ is the fountain-head of all spiritual life, whereas they teach you to seek it in communion with inferior creatures.’ ”

Dwelleth” is katoikei (κατοικει). Oikeō (Ὀικεω) means “to be at home.” Kata (Κατα), prefixed, means “down,” thus showing permanence. The compound verb was used of the permanent residents of a town as compared with the transient community. The verb is in the present tense, showing durative action. The translation reads: “Because in Him there is continuously and permanently at home all the fulness of the Godhead in bodily fashion.”

Dwelleth imports more than a transient stay for a few minutes, or a little while, even abiding in him constantly and for ever, as dwelling most usually notes, 2 Corinthians 6:16. That which doth thus perpetually abide in his person, as denominated after the human nature, is all the fulness of the Godhead, viz. that rich and incomprehensible abundance of perfections, whereof the supreme and adorable nature is full; so that indeed there is not at all any perfection or excellency in the Divine nature but is found abiding in him. And after no common or ordinary way, but by a hypostatical or personal union of the Godhead with the manhood in Christ; which is not by way of mixture, confusion, conversion, or any other mutation;


bodily, to exclude that inhabitation which is only by extrinsical denomination. It being an adverb, doth denote the manner as well as the subject; wherefore when he speaks of the temple of his body, John 2:21, that doth not fully reach the apostle’s meaning here: but it must be expounded personally, since in the Greek that which signifies with us a body, and so our English word body, is put for a person, Romans 12:1 2 Corinthians 5:10 Revelation 18:13: somebody or nobody, i.e. some person or no person. There is a presence of the Godhead general, by essence and power; particular, in the prophets and apostles working miracles: gracious, in all sanctified ones; glorious, in heaven, in light which no man can approach unto, 1 Timothy 6:16; relative, in the church visible and ordinances, typically under the law, and symbolically in the sacraments: but all these dwellings, or being present in the creature, fall short of that in the text, viz. bodily, connoting the personal habitation of the Deity in, and union of it with, the humanity of Christ, so close, and strait, and intimate, that the Godhead inhabiting and the manhood inhabited make but one and the same person, even as the reasonable soul and body in man make but one man. The way of the presence of the Deity with the humanity of Christ is above all those manners of the presence of God with angels and men. The Godhead dwells in him personally, in them in regard of assistance and energy: Godhead notes the truth of it; Christ was not only partaker of the Divine nature, 2 Peter 1:4, but the very Godhead dwells in him: it is not only the Divinity (as the Socinians, following the Vulgar Latin in this, would have it) but the Deity, the very nature and essence of God. Now it is observable, though in God himself Divinity and Deity be indeed the same, Romans 1:20, and may differ only from the manner of our conception and contemplation; yet here, when the enemies to Christ’s Deity might by their cavilling make more use of the word Divinity, (as when the soul of man is said to be a divine thing), to insinuate as if it here noted only the Divine will exclusive to the other attributes, (which exclusion the term all doth significantly prevent), the apostle puts in Deity or Godhead. Then lest Christ might (as by the Arians) be deemed a secondary God, or (as some since) a made god, inferior to the Father, he saith the fulness of the Godhead, which speaks him perfect God, coequal with the Father: further, connoting a numerical sameness of essence between the Godhead of the Father and the Son, all the fulness of the Godhead dwelleth in him. There is not one fulness of the Father and another of the Son, but one and the same singular Godhead in both, John 10:30. The fulness of the manhood in Adam and Eve were not numerically the same, but the Godhead of the Father and the Son is: yet is not the manhood of Christ co-extended and commensurate with the Godhead (as some Lutherans conceit); but where the manhood is, or Christ as man is, or hath his existence, there the fulness of the Godhead dwells bodily: so that this fulness is extended as the manhood only in which it is, and not as far as the Deity in which this derivative fulness is not as in its seat, though it be all originally from it, but inherently or subjectively in Christ. Matthew Poole

Conclusion: no one in the history of mankind has ever had all the fulness of Deity in them except Christ alone who is God manifest in the flesh. just as the Father and the Holy Spirit have all the fulness of Deity, so to does the Incarnate Son- Forever God in the flesh !

hope this helps !!!
 
1 Kings 18:21
And Elijah came unto all the people, and said, How long halt ye between two opinions? if the LORD be God, follow him: but if Baal, then follow him. And the people answered him not a word

We have the True Christ and the many false christs just like the many false gods. Jesus and the Apostles in many places warn us about the false christs.
 
Some like to have their cake and eat it too walking the fence, half in and half out, playing both sides of the fence. Scripture calls that double minded and unstable.

Jesus question to the 12 is most appropriate here. Who do people say that I Am ?

The million dollar question.

One of the greatest questions Jesus asked His disciples was who do people say that I am ?

This is one of the most important questions He asked.

To Confess

NT:3670 ‎o(mologe/w ‎homologeo (hom-ol-og-eh'-o);


Strong's Concordance

homologeó
: to speak the same, to agree

Original Word: ὁμολογέω

Part of Speech: Verb

Transliteration: homologeó

Phonetic Spelling: (hom-ol-og-eh'-o)

Definition: to speak the same, to agree

Usage: (a) I promise, agree, (b) I confess, (c) I publicly declare, (d) a Hebraism, I praise, celebrate.

3670 homologéō (from 3674 /homoú, "together" and 3004 /légō, "speak to a conclusion") – properly, to voice the same conclusion, i.e. agree ("confess"); to profess (confess) because in full agreement; to align with (endorse)


Joel 2:32
32 "And it will come about that whoever calls on the name of the Lord
Will be delivered;
For on Mount Zion and in Jerusalem
There will be those who escape,
As the Lord has said,
Even among the survivors whom the Lord calls.


Here we see Paul quote this OT passage about YHWH and apply it to Jesus who is the one and only Lord according to the N.T.

Romans 10:9-13

9 that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved; 10 for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation. 11 For the Scripture says, "WHOEVER BELIEVES IN HIM WILL NOT BE DISAPPOINTED." 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for the same Lord is Lord of all, abounding in riches for all who call on Him; 13 for "WHOEVER WILL CALL ON THE NAME OF THE LORD WILL BE SAVED."


So a person must confess Jesus is YHWH(Lord) to be saved. Confess means to agree with so the person confessing Jesus is Lord is in agreement that He is YHWH. Whoever will call upon the name of the Lord ( YHWH) will be saved.


The number one test to distinguish truth for error and the Spirit of God from that of the spirit of antichrist is the confession of our divine Lord Jesus Christ. Every spirit that confesses Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God. There is one thing the spirit of antichrist will deny and that is they will deny He is God in the flesh- that He is fully God and fully man. They will deny God in human flesh. They will always deny the Incarnation which was permanent. When a person affirms that Jesus Christ is God in flesh that equates to divine truth. Every spirit that confesses meaning to continually confess or agrees with saying the same thing as John declares in his writings is from God. This is the person who is taught by the Spirit of God according to John. The first test that you want to have for any teacher is their Christology, check out what they say about Christ. This becomes a litmus test that is very easy to spot among the false teachers.


If we go back to the beginning of 1 John, we read that which we he beheld, and actually touched concerning the Word of life. That is a term expressing the very deity of Christ. Christ emanates from God as His living Word. He was with the Father in the beginning in 1:2. Jesus was One with the Father sharing the same essence with the Father in heaven with Him before the foundation of the world. John says He was manifested to us. John's language then starts out with the fact that Jesus Christ emanates from God as the very living Word of God. Jesus is the living Word of God,the One John says that was from the beginning that we heard, we saw and we touched. Jesus the Word of life was the eternal One who was with the Father prior to His Incarnation and was then manifested to us in the flesh that we could see and hear and touch according to John. Therefore, we can clearly see Jesus is the very Word of God Incarnate. He is the eternal life who became flesh. The Word who was with God, the Word who was God, was the One who John says was manifested to us. This is how we can tell the spirit of truth from the spirit of antichrist. Can you confess Jesus is God Incarnate?

1 John 4:2
By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God;

2 John 7
For many deceivers have gone out into the world, those who do not acknowledge ( confesses ) Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh. This is the deceiver and the antichrist.


Erchomenon the present participle in 2 John 7


Below we have many Greek Scholars and Theologians who affirm this truth !

Alford-
the present tense is timeless(pg 274 RNTC on 2 John)

Brooke- the Incarnation is not only an event in history, it is an abiding truth(pg 274 RNTC on 2 John)

Stott- the two natures manhood and Godhood were united already at His birth, never to be divided. In 1 John 4:2 and here in 2 John 7 emphasizes this permanent union of the natures in the One Person ( TNTC pages 209-210) He who denies the Incarnation is not just a deceiver and an antichrist but “the deceiver and the antichrist”. There is in this heresy a double affront: it opposes Christ and deceives men.(stott TNCT page 210)

Marshall- the use of the present and perfect tenses becomes significant if the point is that Jesus Christ had come and still existed “in flesh”. For him(John) it was axiomatic that there had been a true Incarnation, that the word became flesh and remained flesh. It is a point that receives much stress in 1 John 2:18-28;4:1-6;5:5-8. (NICNT pages 70-71)

Smalley- the present tense emphasizes the permanent union of the human and Divine natures in Jesus. Gods self disclosure in Jesus took place at a particular moment in history , but it has continuing effects in the present and into the future(Word Biblical Commentary page 317)

Nicoll- the continuous manifestation of the Incarnate Christ(Expositors Greek Testament Volume 5 page 202)

Akin- Much has been made of the fact that John uses the present tense in this Christological confession. Literally the verse reads, “Jesus Christ coming in flesh.” “Coming” is a present active participle. This stands out in remarkable contrast to the affirmation of 1 John 4:2, where the text states that “Jesus Christ has [emphasis mine] come in the flesh.” There the perfect active participle is used. The key, it seems, is to discover what John is affirming. Here in 2 John the emphasis falls on the abiding reality of the incarnation. First John 4:2 teaches that the Christ, the Father’s Son (v. 3), has come in the flesh. Second John affirms that the wedding of deity and humanity has an abiding reality (cf. 1 Tim 2:5). The ontological and essential nature of the incarnation that would receive eloquent expression one thousand years later in the writing of St. Anselm (1033–1109) in his classic Cur Deus Homo is already present in seed form in the tiny and neglected letter of 2 John.

Lenski- In 1 John 4:2 we have ἐν σαρκὶ ἐληλυθότα, the perfect participle, “as having come in flesh” (incarnate, John 1:14); here we have ἐρχόμενον ἐν σαρκί, “as coming in flesh,” although the participle is present in form it is really timeless.of Christ as "still being manifested." See the note at 1 John 3:5. In 1 John 4:2 we have the manifestation treated as a past fact by the perfect tense, ‎eleeluthota ‎"has come

Robertson- That Jesus Christ cometh in the flesh ‎Ieesoun ‎‎Christon ‎‎erchomenon ‎‎en ‎‎sarki‎. "Jesus Christ coming in the flesh." Present middle participle of ‎erchomai ‎treating the Incarnation as a continuing fact which the Docetic Gnostics flatly denied. In 1 John 4:2 we have ‎eleeluthota ‎(perfect active participle) in this same construction with ‎homologeoo‎, because there the reference is to the definite historical fact of the Incarnation.

hope this helps !!!
 
I've been reading through the thread and thinking on what has been said. It seems to me the problem lies in considering Jesus as a human person. It was asked "is Jesus a human person?" ... Well, no He's not but during the Incarnation He was made to be as a human person. He had to be made like us in every way therefore he had to be made as if He was not God even though He is. In that sense, Jesus is a human person for all intents and purposes while on Earth.

Hebrews 2:17
Therefore, in all things He had to be made like His brethren, that He might be a merciful and faithful High Priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people.

That can only be true if He was made to be as a human person.

I don't see the word "person" in Hebrews 2:17. Can you point it out to me?

"Person" is more than flesh. More than characteristics. Person involves "essence". Jesus did not have the "character" of a sinful man.

Most people don't spend much time dealing with these types of issues. There are clear lines to be drawn here. You're oversimplifying and creating a "necessity" in Hebrews 2:17 that isn't required by the Scriptures.
 
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