He was a thief and a liar and became a murderer, so that’s at least 30% of the Ten Commandments. His actions certainly didn’t put God before any other gods, nor did they honor his parents. Oh, and I suppose stealing implies coveting things that aren’t yours, so we’re at least at a 60% failure rate. Hardly what can be considered to be “obedient to the Law and to God.”
And how did he "sold his friend"? Yes, it was a betrayal of trust but stealing "from the bag" had nothing to do with what he did. Think.
It does not foreshadow the "New Testament" era. And it was a covenant but faith is not a part or term of the New Covenant. And you'll notice Jeremiah does state the Law of God as an integral part of this New Covenant. It says that clearly.
You're not looking at it correctly. The writings came later, much later. Israel was the recipient of God's promises. Only Israel has the obligation as recipients of God's promises. God promised Gentiles nothing, but you want to add them to Israel's inheritance and this has no Scriptural support. All the prophets addressed Israel. Even Jonah. Yes, he recounts his involvement with Nineveh, but he wrote of his experience to the Jewish people, specifically, the southern kingdom. Nineveh never received any of Jonah's writings. Jonah recounts his ministry to God and he addressed his story to Judah.
That section has been fulfilled, is being fulfilled, and will be fulfilled even before Jesus returns. It is part of the covenant God made with Israel.
Why do you continue to add to the Bible things it never says? There is no faith mentioned in the New Covenant prophesy of Jeremiah. Israel doesn't need to do anything. They will believe their God, but faith is not required under this covenant.
So, you are calling Jesus a liar? Jesus lied in telling the twelve disciples they were going to sit on twelve thrones - one for each disciple - and judge the twelve tribes?
And you are giving false witness. That's 100% of the commandments. As a matter of fact, Judas did put God above other gods - even above mammon. But since you've never studied the question of Judas Iscariot, you will continue to put evil for good and remain a false accuser.
But this judgment does not apply to salvation. From what Jeremiah said and what Jesus did, Israel is forgiven all her sins. That was the purpose - at least one of the purposes - for Jesus' coming the first time.
20In the same way, after the supper he took the cup, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in my blood, which is poured out for you. 21But the hand of him who is going to betray me is with mine on the table. 22The Son of Man will go as it has been decreed. But woe to that man who betrays him!”
I said “He also betrayed the trust of Jesus and the rest of the disciples by stealing from the money given to support Jesus’s ministry; money that he was in charge of maintaining and dispersing”, which shows a pattern of behavior that ‘it was always about the money’ in Judas’ thinking. That is serving “mammon” above God. That’s why he complained about the woman with the alabaster box.
The word "woe" is the Greek word for "grief." And grief is what Judas' acts did to him. Once he "saw" what he had done he repented and threw the 30 pieces of silver at the priests. And to further prove his repentance he went out and hung himself and died in obedience to the Word of God.
And Peter rejected the Lord. The Lord Jesus called Peter, "Satan." Isn't that a betrayal worse than Judas'? Not "son of" but actual Satan. So, what sins did Jesus atone since we're comparing which sin is worse? Peter rejecting Jesus saying, "I know not the man!" or Judas pointing Jesus out with a kiss, in effect, declaring Him as the Lord to the religious leaders who wanted Jesus arrsted.
But the Ninevites were told to repent and be spared from being destroyed. Non-Jews were being offered mercy! Being written to Jews only makes the point that Jews are not the only people God cares about! Think!
Jesus was not calling Peter Satan, he was speaking directly to Satan who had used Peter’s honest, but misguided, attempt to dissuade Jesus from the cross. Jesus recognized the real source of Peter’s objection, and spoke directly to Satan!
The Assyrians conquered Israel. And what did God do when He was ready to address it? He destroyed then Assyrians. God did such a number on the Assyrians that today we have to dig in order to ascertain its location. God wiped them out. Their "repentance" was a facade. They were never under the Law, and they all perished without Law. There were no sacrifices for their sin.
So, Peter was possessed by Satan? But it doesn't say that. Jesus directed His comments to Peter and called him "Satan." Personal pronoun. He didn't say, "Get thee behind me, Peter!" He said, Satan. Peter was so very much Satan that he denied Jesus three times! You can't "clean" this up.
Again, you only cite a portion of the actual definition:
The word "woe" means "grief."
No, Jesus called him "Satan."
Here, Jesus promises His disciples each a throne when things are restored (after defeating His enemies and Himself sitting on His throne in Jerusalem.)
