Sealed by the baptism en the Holy Ghost

Acts 10:45 (cf. Acts 2:38)

For to have the gift of the Holy Spirit means one is saved.
You continue to conflate the indwelling work of Holy Spirit and the miracle empowering work of the Holy Spirit. Both are said to be "gifts of the Holy Spirit"; however, with the indwelling Holy Spirit the gift is the Holy Spirit while with the empowering Holy Spirit the gift is the ability to work miracles. They are not the same.
 
the indwelling Holy Spirit the gift is the Holy Spirit


It reads, "the gift of the Holy Spirit" in Acts 10:45.
The gift of the Holy Spirit is the Holy Spirit.

They had been "given" the Holy Spirit (Acts 15:8). Thus, they were indwelt with the Holy Spirit (1 John 4:13).
 
It reads, "the gift of the Holy Spirit" in Acts 10:45.
The gift of the Holy Spirit is the Holy Spirit.
No, it is not. It says that they spoke in tongues which says what the gift was.

Act 10:45 And the believers from among the circumcised who had come with Peter were amazed, because the gift of the Holy Spirit was poured out even on the Gentiles. 46 For [because] they were hearing them speaking in tongues and extolling God.

That indicates that the gift was the ability to speak in tongues, not the indwelling Holy Spirit.

But you believe what you wish.
 
No, it is not.

To help you get out of your confusion:

https://berean-apologetics.community.forum/threads/eli-insurance-policy.589/page-3#post-25287



They could speak in tongues because they had the Holy Spirit.

New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology (TDNTT):
Yet the one great gift which he gives to his church is his Spirit (2 Cor. 1:22; 5:5; 1 Thess. 4:8; Lk. 11:13; cf. Acts 2:38; 8:17; 10:47; 19:6; also the OT quotations in Acts 2:17 f. [Joel 2:28 ff.] and Heb. 8:10 [Jer. 31:33]). In the church, all other “gifts”
(usually charisma, -> Grace) are the results of this one gift (Rom. 12:3 ff.; 1 Cor. 12:1 ff., cf. also 2 Pet. 1:3)
(2:42, Gift, H. Vorlander).
 
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So then, Paul's statement in Romans 10:9-10 is false; it is not really necessary to confess anything.
Just as Romans 10:5 speaks of a righteous man living according to the law, so Romans 10:9-10 speaks of a righteous man living by faith - i.e. he is already saved. Believing and confessing is simply a sign that he has already been born again. The same was true of Abraham, who had walked with the Lord for decades, when the Lord counted his faith as righteousness. Romans 4:5
 
Just as Romans 10:5 speaks of a righteous man living according to the law, so Romans 10:9-10 speaks of a righteous man living by faith - i.e. he is already saved. Believing and confessing is simply a sign that he has already been born again. The same was true of Abraham, who had walked with the Lord for decades, when the Lord counted his faith as righteousness. Romans 4:5
To be counted as righteousness is the act of God's saving. Faith comes before salvation. Faith, i.e., believing in God, repentance, confession, baptism all conditions ending in salvation.
 
Afraid not

They received the Spirit

They received the gift of the Spirit

They were baptized en the Spirit

which

1 Corinthians 12:13 — 13 For en one Spirit we were all baptized into one body, whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free persons, and all were made to drink one Spirit.

shows they were in the body
Only in your delusions. The Gentiles had received empowerment of the Spirit, but not salvation, not the indwelling Spirit. That is only received upon salvation, and that is received in water baptism.
They had repentance unto life.
Repentance which leads to life, but not life immediately received upon repentance. Faith is required, and they had not yet exhibited faith through obedience to the Gospel command.
And had their hearts purified by faith
Indeed they did, as soon as they obeyed the Gospel and were baptized into Christ.
Your theology requires you to ignore all those things.
No, Scripture puts them in their proper place, but you twist Scripture to fit your false doctrine.
 
FALSE. They were saved when they believed in Him (Acts 10:43) confirmed by receiving the gift of the Holy Spirit and speaking in tongues (Acts 10:45-46) BEFORE water baptism. (Acts 10:47) To reject this crystal-clear truth is to be blatantly dishonest.
To insist that they were saved before Scripture says they were is dishonest. You ignore direct statements, twisting them to fit your doctrine, and then interpret events by those twisted conclusions. Instead you should accept the truth found in 1 Pet 3:21, Acts 8:36, Acts 22:16, Acts 2:38, Gal 3:26-27, Eph 5:26-27 and others where the direct statements of God say salvation is received during water baptism.
Your eisegesis and blatant dishonesty is appalling. 1 Corinthians 12 states nothing about spiritual gifts being outside the body of Christ.
You are correct, it does not. But then, stating that a person who gets splashed with water is wet doesn't mention oil at all either. But a person splashed with oil is still wet. 1 Cor 12 in no way makes the gifts mentioned there exclusive to the Church.
These Gentiles in Acts 10:43-47 not only spoke in tongues but received the gift of the Holy Spirit. This was an absolute confirmation they were saved.
No, it is not. It is your assumption, but not truth. Just because they received the gift of the Holy Spirit doesn't mean that He was indwelling them at that point.
Acts 11:17 further confirms they received the same gift (Holy Spirit) when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ (compare with Acts 16:31). Acts 15:7-9 also further confirms this. - And when there had been much dispute, Peter rose up and said to them: “Men and brethren, you know that a good while ago God chose among us, that by my mouth the Gentiles should hear the word of the gospel and believe. So, God, who knows the heart, acknowledged them by giving them the Holy Spirit, just as He did to us, and made no distinction between us and them, purifying their hearts by faith.
The last five words you quote here disprove your assertion. Their hearts were purified BY FAITH, not by the falling of the Spirit on them in power; not by them speaking in tongues. Their hearts were purified when they obeyed the Gospel in water baptism.
Did Jesus confirm that? They were obviously not children of God/saved believers because Jesus clearly told these many people that He never knew them which means they were never saved. So, where did these false prophets get this power to accomplish what they claimed to accomplish since Jesus never knew them? In context, Jesus starts out by saying, "Beware of false prophets, who come to you in sheep’s clothing, but inwardly they are ravenous wolves." (vs. 15)
Obviously they were not children of God, and obviously the works they did were not credited to them as righteousness. In
Matt 24:24, Jesus says that there WILL BE false prophets who perform miracles, so it is not unreasonable to accept that these false prophets really did do what they claim to have done.
 
Those who say that baptism is required to be saved are denying the effectiveness of the work of the cross - and therefore put dishonor on Jesus who suffered for us there. Like the Judaizers, they must add something to the work of Christ.
So your are saying that Israel dishonored God by marching around Jericho, and caused His knocking down the walls to be ineffective?
Or the widow who borrowed all the jars she could dishonored God because she obeyed the prophet.
Or the other widow who gave her last meal to the prophet dishonored God because she obeyed the prophet?
These people added to what God commanded, and so denied the effectiveness of God's power and dishonored Him?????
 
The last five words you quote here disprove your assertion. Their hearts were purified BY FAITH, not by the falling of the Spirit on them in power; not by them speaking in tongues. Their hearts were purified when they obeyed the Gospel in water baptism.

 
To insist that they were saved before Scripture says they were is dishonest. You ignore direct statements, twisting them to fit your doctrine, and then interpret events by those twisted conclusions. Instead you should accept the truth found in 1 Pet 3:21, Acts 8:36, Acts 22:16, Acts 2:38, Gal 3:26-27, Eph 5:26-27 and others where the direct statements of God say salvation is received during water baptism.

You are correct, it does not. But then, stating that a person who gets splashed with water is wet doesn't mention oil at all either. But a person splashed with oil is still wet. 1 Cor 12 in no way makes the gifts mentioned there exclusive to the Church.

No, it is not. It is your assumption, but not truth. Just because they received the gift of the Holy Spirit doesn't mean that He was indwelling them at that point.

The last five words you quote here disprove your assertion. Their hearts were purified BY FAITH, not by the falling of the Spirit on them in power; not by them speaking in tongues. Their hearts were purified when they obeyed the Gospel in water baptism.

Obviously they were not children of God, and obviously the works they did were not credited to them as righteousness. In
Matt 24:24, Jesus says that there WILL BE false prophets who perform miracles, so it is not unreasonable to accept that these false prophets really did do what they claim to have done.
Until you believe the gospel and the blinders are removed, I will just continue to waste my time beating a dead horse.
 
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