Judaism's circumcision

praise_yeshua

Well-known member
If you ask a trained rabbi in the Jewish religion why Adam wasn't circumcised, you will often get the answer that Adam was "born" circumcised. There is a reason for this answer. It is why the "circumcision" demanded that Gentiles be circumcised. This "rift" among the followers of Christ has long plagued humanity. It is not something new.

The reason for the answer is due to the requirements of the children of Isaac be to circumcised. If such is a requirement is really to please God...... then why has it not ALWAYS been a requirement to please God.

Logical question.
Meaningful question.
Apologetics demands answers to such a question.

So.....

What is your answer? I know mine. Lets make this a test of your ability to discern the truth. A test of whether you deserve to be teacher yourself or not.
 
Secular Judaism believes Gentiles can be righteous by the 7 Noahide laws, it does not demand circumcision.

In Paul's case with the Judaizers, it seems they were wanting to make them full converts because of their zeal.

The reason God does not ask modern believers to fulfill the old covenant, is because God has laid out dispensations, and does not always ask the same thing of all people. This is why we no longer have to keep the Sabbath, etc.
 
Secular Judaism believes Gentiles can be righteous by the 7 Noahide laws, it does not demand circumcision.

In Paul's case with the Judaizers, it seems they were wanting to make them full converts because of their zeal.

The reason God does not ask modern believers to fulfill the old covenant, is because God has laid out dispensations, and does not always ask the same thing of all people. This is why we no longer have to keep the Sabbath, etc.

Go ahead and quote the Talmud....

You will not find this in the Scriptures. It is a secular teaching from only certain sects of rabbis.
 
That might be why I used the word "secular."

Perhaps...

Also I would see the Talmuds as secular.

We have never had to keep the Sabbath day to please God. Gentiles have never keep the Sabbath and pleased God.

You're looking at this through the "lens" of the false teachings of Dispensationalism. Dispensationalism is corrupt nonsense.

Back to the OP.

1. Was Adam circumcised or not?
2. If he was, then whey weren't his children circumcised?

If circumcision in the flesh actually pleases God, then why weren't all the descendants of Adam circumcised. Dispensationalism is evil in this context. It perverts the truth of God from the beginning.

Christ the same yesterday. Today and forever. The Lamb of God before the foundation of the world.

Did you know that sin teaches? I know you're going to say that has nothing to do with this but it does. Consider what I say here and think relative to the absolutes of Scriptures. Not what Dispensationalists teach you.

I'll give you a hint......

You are child of those to whom you listen. This is very spirit of adoption whereby we cry "Abba Father". Jesus called those that claimed Abraham the children of the devil. Jesus said that God could raise children unto Abraham from ROCKS that where right there beside Him when He spoke.

The same has been true from the beginning. It has nothing to do what you think about Dispensationalism and religions. It all about people. If you will deal with this from the perspective of people. You will understand it.
 
Dispensationalism

Dispensationalism as a teaching is more than just the existence of dispensations.

Just as the Reformed Faith is more than just being spiritually reformed, Adventism is more than just the advent of Jesus, Baptists are more than just people should be baptized, Evangelicals are more than just the existence of an Evangel, Free Grace is teaching more than just that grace is free.

Etc., etc., etc., because labels become more than their literal meanings.

Scripture CLEARLY teaches two covenants, and anyone who denies that has denied the inspiration of Scripture.
 
Dispensationalism as a teaching is more than just the existence of dispensations.

Just as the Reformed Faith is more than just being spiritually reformed, Adventism is more than just the advent of Jesus, Baptists are more than just people should be baptized, Evangelicals are more than just the existence of an Evangel, Free Grace is teaching more than just that grace is free.

Etc., etc., etc., because labels become more than their literal meanings.

Scripture CLEARLY teaches two covenants, and anyone who denies that has denied the inspiration of Scripture.
Okay. I'll bite. Dispensationalism teaches more than two dispensations. You mention two covenants being essential to understanding. Which is a clear contradiction of fact.

Thusly.... Dispensationalism is false. Who care about Dispensationalism? I don't.

I judge "false things". I don't care what the English words used to describe it is. (Labels).

Needless to say. Judaism isn't compatible with Dispensationalism.
 
The real circumcision in the N.T. is not the physical mark on a part of the boy but a spiritual one that we have in Christ The Apostle Paul teaches this in Romans 2:29- it is the heart which is accomplished by the Spirit. In Colossians 2:11-12 we see the spiritual circumcision: “In him you were also circumcised, in the putting off of the sinful nature, not with a circumcision done by the hands of men but with the circumcision done by Christ, having been buried with him in baptism and raised with him through your faith in the power of God, who raised him from the dead.”

hope this helps !!!
 
I am not a Dispensationalist, I never claimed to be a Dispensationalist, I was not defending Dispensationalism and I think Dipensationalism is false.

Hope that clears things up.

Then why are you using the word? There is no Greek word denoting "dispensation". Such comes from English alone.

There is such much of this wrapped up in the languages of men. Such is fleshly. Earthly. There is a message. A "voice" in this "communication" we are having that comes from God alone. It is mixed with the languages of men. I recommend you start studying language to the point of actually applying it historical to what we reference as the Scriptures.

If you're not a dispensationalist, then there is no litigate reason to even use the word at all.
 
Then why are you using the word?

I explained that.

Same reason I use the word baptist when I'm not a Baptist.

Same reason I use the words free grace when I'm not Free Grace.

Same reason I use the word reformed when I'm not Reformed.

Same reason I use the word Evangel when I'm not Evangelical.

Same reason I use the word advent when I'm not an Adventist.


This isn't rocket science, people.
 
I explained that.

Same reason I use the word baptist when I'm not a Baptist.

Same reason I use the words free grace when I'm not Free Grace.

Same reason I use the word reformed when I'm not Reformed.

Same reason I use the word Evangel when I'm not Evangelical.

Same reason I use the word advent when I'm not an Adventist.


This isn't rocket science, people.
sometimes it takes a while to iron out these things this medium is so much different than having a face to face conversation where you can see peoples expressions and their non verbals. I have problems even with my wife and kids with texting and not coming across the way I meant it.
 
I explained that.

Same reason I use the word baptist when I'm not a Baptist.

Same reason I use the words free grace when I'm not Free Grace.

Same reason I use the word reformed when I'm not Reformed.

Same reason I use the word Evangel when I'm not Evangelical.

Same reason I use the word advent when I'm not an Adventist.


This isn't rocket science, people.

I try to use the language of the Scriptures. Not what man has made of it. You will fail if you this. The evidence is clear that you are failing in your own responses.

You used the word dispensations without the context of Dispensationalism. You used the word dispensation as evidence itself.

Don't be intellectually dishonest. You know you did. You will not find me doing such because it brings nothing to the conversation but distract. Tighten your rhetoric. Be exacting.

The word dispensation is nothing more than an English word denoting dispensationalism. Nothing more.
 
that in the dispensation of the fullness of the times He might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven and which are on earth-- in Him. (Eph. 1:10 NKJ)

if indeed you have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which was given to me for you, (Eph. 3:2 NKJ)
 
sometimes it takes a while to iron out these things this medium is so much different than having a face to face conversation where you can see peoples expressions and their non verbals. I have problems even with my wife and kids with texting and not coming across the way I meant it.

I written about this before here and many other places throughout the internet.

There is "baked in jargon" that exists theological circles that shouldn't exist. We should use the words correctly to avoid some of the problem. "Dispensation" was "coined" and is just plain wrong. In like manner with the word "Jew". It became to mean something that it never meant in historical interactions within humanity.
 
that in the dispensation of the fullness of the times He might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven and which are on earth-- in Him. (Eph. 1:10 NKJ)

if indeed you have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which was given to me for you, (Eph. 3:2 NKJ)

You do realize you're reference a translation made by men.... right? Not a copy of Scripture. A translation.

Dig a little deeper.
 
I written about this before here and many other places throughout the internet.

There is "baked in jargon" that exists theological circles that shouldn't exist. We should use the words correctly to avoid some of the problem. "Dispensation" was "coined" and is just plain wrong. In like manner with the word "Jew". It became to mean something that it never meant in historical interactions within humanity.
much like the word christian today or church which does not mean what it did in NT times.
 
You do realize you're reference a translation made by men.... right? Not a copy of Scripture. A translation.

Dig a little deeper.
its like the English word worship has nothing to do with the actual Greek word which means to bow down, lay prostrate . :)

in church today "worship" means something entirely different than it did in the NT. the modern church thinks singing songs is worship and its not.

proskuneó: To worship, to bow down, to prostrate oneself
Original Word: προσκυνέω
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: proskuneó
Pronunciation: pros-koo-NEH-oh
Phonetic Spelling: (pros-koo-neh'-o)
Definition: To worship, to bow down, to prostrate oneself
Meaning: I go down on my knees to, do obeisance to, worship.
 
You do realize all words are made by men... right.

I'm done with this nonsense and games.

Your inexperience is hindering you. You will not change until your recognize that you're inexperienced. Study. I know you don't want to hear that but it is true and must be said so that you can change.

I would love to talk about the "voice" we have that has its origins in God. I would love to but you're not capable of having that discussion. You are not ready.

Jesus told this to his disciples and it played out throughout the book of Acts in their actions. Peter was wrong and had to learn that Gentiles where equal to everyone else in this world.

That was true long before Peter every realized it was true.

Joh 16:12 I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now.
Joh 16:13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.
 
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