Jesus denied being God

[civic]

These 35 points indicate that Jesus speaks and acts on behalf of God, and receives authority from God.
Mine is not a post-hoc interpretation: It is Jesus Himself who explains that He does not speak or act but what has been ordered by God, and that all powers or authority He has he has received it from God.

Baha'u'llah said "If Jesus had said "I am God" He would have spoken the truth". That's the whole point of being a Messenger and Manifestation of God. Even in the burning bush in Exodus 3, it is a Messenger from God who speaks as if He were God Himself.

***
Now, I can also list many items supported by the Bible that demonstrate that God is superior to Jesus.... that they relationship is not symmetrical, and that they are not equal. How would you explain that list?

no man all of history has these same attributes, descriptors and actions they performed. This can only be said of Christ and never of any prophet or apostle. They may have one or two to them but not 35 of them. These are atriibutes of God.

 

[civic]

Here is one of many passages where He claimed to be God and they tried to stone Him


John 5:16-18
So, because Jesus was doing these things on the Sabbath, the Jewish leaders began to persecute him. 17 In his defense Jesus said to them, “My Father is always at his work to this very day, and I too am working.” 18 For this reason they tried all the more to kill him; not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God.


John 8:58-59
Jesus answered, “I tell you the truth, before Abraham was even born, I Am !
59 At this, they picked up stones to stone him, but Jesus hid himself, slipping away from the temple grounds.

John 10:33
"We are not stoning You for any good work," said the Jews, "but for blasphemy, because You, who are a man, declare Yourself to be God."


John 19:7
"We have a law," answered the Jews, "and according to that law He must die, because He declared Himself to be the Son of God."


Jesus is All Knowing, Omniscient



John 1:48

Nathanael said to Him, "How do You know me?" Jesus answered and said to him, "Before Philip called you, when you were under the fig tree, I saw you."

John 2:24-25

But Jesus would not entrust himself to them, for he knew all people. 25 He did not need any testimony about mankind, for he knew what was in each person.

John 4:29,39

“Come, see a man who told me everything I ever did. Could this be the Messiah? 39Many of the Samaritans from that town believed in him because of the woman’s testimony, “He told me everything I ever did.”

John 16:29-30

Then Jesus’ disciples said, “Now you are speaking clearly and without figures of speech. 30 Now we can see that you know all things and that you do not even need to have anyone ask you questions. This makes us believe that you came from God.”

John 21:17

Jesus asked a third time, "Simon son of John, do you love Me?" Peter was deeply hurt that Jesus had asked him a third time, "Do you love Me?" "Lord, You know all things," he replied. "You know I love You." Jesus said to him, "Feed My sheep.

Matthew 9:24

But Jesus, knowing their thoughts, said, “Why do you think evil in your hearts?

Matthew 12:25

And knowing their thoughts Jesus said to them, "Any kingdom divided against itself is laid waste; and any city or house divided against itself will not stand

Luke 6:8

But He knew what they were thinking, and He said to the man with the withered hand, "Get up and come forward!" And he got up and came forward.

Acts 1:24

Then they prayed, “Lord, you know everyone’s heart.

Revelation 2:23

all the churches will know that I am He who searches the minds and hearts; and I will give to each one of you according to your deeds.

 

[MTMattie]

These 35 points indicate that Jesus speaks and acts on behalf of God, and receives authority from God.
Mine is not a post-hoc interpretation: It is Jesus Himself who explains that He does not speak or act but what has been ordered by God, and that all powers or authority He has he has received it from God.

Baha'u'llah said "If Jesus had said "I am God" He would have spoken the truth". That's the whole point of being a Messenger and Manifestation of God. Even in the burning bush in Exodus 3, it is a Messenger from God who speaks as if He were God Himself.

***
Now, I can also list many items supported by the Bible that demonstrate that God is superior to Jesus.... that they relationship is not symmetrical, and that they are not equal. How would you explain that list?

It is true that Jesus never said the exact words, “I am God.” He did, however, make the claim to be God in many different ways, and those who heard Him knew exactly what He was saying. For example, in John 10:30, Jesus said, “I and the Father are one.” The Jews who heard Him make that statement knew well that He was claiming to be God, as witnessed by their reaction: “His Jewish opponents picked up stones to stone him” (John 10:31). When He asked them why they were attempting to stone Him, they said, “For blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God” (John 10:33). Stoning was the penalty for blasphemy (Leviticus 24:16), and the Jews plainly accused Jesus of claiming to be God.



Jesus made another statement claiming to be God when He said, “Very truly I tell you, . . . before Abraham was born, I am!” (John 8:58). The Jews, upon hearing Him, clearly understood that He was claiming preexistence and, more than that, to be Yahweh, the great “I AM” of Exodus 3:14. On this occasion, too, they tried to stone Him for blasphemy.

The Gospel of John begins with a statement of Jesus’ deity: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God” (John 1:1, emphasis added). In verse 14, John identifies the Word: “The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.” John is affirming that the Word (Jesus) is God, and He left heaven to come to earth in the form of a man to live with men and display the glory of God the Father.

The disciples of Jesus distinctly heard Him declare His deity. After Jesus’ resurrection, Thomas the doubting disciple finally understood Jesus’ deity, declaring Him to be “my Lord and my God” (John 20:28). If Jesus were not Lord and God, He would have corrected Thomas, but He did not; Thomas spoke the truth. After seeing Jesus walking on the water, His disciples worshipped Him (Matthew 14:33). When He appeared to them after the resurrection, they fell at His feet and worshipped Him (Matthew 28:9). The disciples were well aware of the Mosaic Law’s penalty for blasphemy, yet they worshipped Him as God, and Jesus accepted their worship. Jesus never rebuked people for worshipping Him, accepting their worship as good and proper.

Jesus’ deity is recognized throughout the New Testament. Paul eagerly awaited “the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ” (Titus 2:13) and encouraged us to do the same. Both Paul and John declared that Jesus created the universe (John 1:3; Colossians 1:16–17), yet Genesis 1:1 clearly says that God created the heavens and the earth. This can only mean that Jesus is God. Even God the Father referred to Jesus as God: “About the Son he says, ‘Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever’” (Hebrews 1:8, quoting Psalm 45:6).

Did Jesus say He was God? Yes, in many ways, including applying the names and attributes of God to Himself. He made it clear that He was God incarnate, proving it by His words, by His miracles, and finally by His resurrection from the dead. Although they doubted at first, those who were finally convinced of His deity understood why He had to die on the cross. If He were a mere man, His death would have been only sufficient to pay for His own sins, but because He was God in the flesh, His sacrifice was infinite and holy and able to pay for all the sins of the world.

 

[Pancho Frijoles]

no man all of history has these same attributes, descriptors and actions they performed. This can only be said of Christ and never of any prophet or apostle. They may have one or two to them but not 35 of them. These are atriibutes of God.

Well, then we have two possible explanations for the 35 points.

1. God manifests such attributes through Jesus Christ and gives such powers to Jesus Christ. Therefore, Jesus Christ speaks and acts as God moves Him to speak and act, and operates under God's authority.
2. God is Jesus Christ, and that's why Jesus Christ speaks and acts as the God He is and acts on his own authority.

Which of the two explanations was the one given by Jesus Himself over and over?
Which of the two explanations is consistent with the superiority of God over Jesus shown on the other 35 verses (I have not counted them, just using a ballpark figure) that I have not listed but that I can list if you are interested?

 

[civic]

Well, then we have two possible explanations for the 35 points.

1. God manifests such attributes through Jesus Christ and gives such powers to Jesus Christ. Therefore, Jesus Christ speaks and acts as God moves Him to speak and act, and operates under God's authority.
2. God is Jesus Christ, and that's why Jesus Christ speaks and acts as the God He is and acts on his own authority.

Which of the two explanations was the one given by Jesus Himself over and over?
Which of the two explanations is consistent with the superiority of God over Jesus shown on the other 35 verses (I have not counted them, just using a ballpark figure) that I have not listed but that I can list if you are interested?

The Biblical fact that He was with God in the beginning before creation sharing the same glory together with the Father should put this to rest. John 17:5, John 1:1-4, Hebrews 1:1-10, Colossians 1:15-17 just to name a few.

 

[Pancho Frijoles]

It is true that Jesus never said the exact words, “I am God.”

Hi MTMattie

That's correct, Jesus never explicitly called Himself God... while interestingly, Jesus explicitly called Our Father "The Only and True God" and "My God".

So what can we conclude from the absence of a explicit statement in one direction, and explicit statements in the other direction?

He did, however, make the claim to be God in many different ways, and those who heard Him knew exactly what He was saying. For example, in John 10:30, Jesus said, “I and the Father are one.” The Jews who heard Him make that statement knew well that He was claiming to be God, as witnessed by their reaction: “His Jewish opponents picked up stones to stone him” (John 10:31). When He asked them why they were attempting to stone Him, they said, “For blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God” (John 10:33). Stoning was the penalty for blasphemy (Leviticus 24:16), and the Jews plainly accused Jesus of claiming to be God.

Their enemies were the ones making the false accusation of blasphemy to get him arrested and killed.
Such accusation was false because Jesus was not calling Himself God.
This is why Jesus didn't accept the charge. If Jesus had considered Himself God, he would have held his ground as truth. Instead, Jesus defended himself against such accusation and repeated that

1. He had been sent by God, and He just spoke and did what God asked Him to speak and do. His own testimony had no value.
2. They shouldn't consider the title "son of God" blasphemy, since in the Tanakh itself the title had been applied to men.

 

[Pancho Frijoles]

The Biblical fact that He was with God in the beginning before creation sharing the same glory together with the Father should put this to rest. John 17:5, John 1:1-4, Hebrews 1:1-10, Colossians 1:15-17 just to name a few.

In the very same prayer in which Christ states that He had enjoyed the glory with the Father, He mentions the Father as the Only and True God, and refers to Himself, Christ, as the One Sent by God... Very relevant to your point, Jesus says that the Father is the source of his glory.

I have given them the glory which You gave Me, that they may be one even as We are one: I in them and You in Me, that they may be perfect in unity, and that the world may know that You have sent Me, and have loved them as You have loved Me.

So, going back to my previous post, we have two possible explanations for the 35 points.

1. God manifests such attributes through Jesus Christ and gives glory to Jesus Christ.
2. God is Jesus Christ, and that's why Jesus Christ speaks and acts as the God and is the source of his own glory.

Which of the two explanations was the one given by Jesus Himself?

 

[civic]

In the very same prayer in which Christ states that He had enjoyed the glory with the Father, He mentions the Father as the Only and True God, and refers to Himself, Christ, as the One Sent by God... Very relevant to your point, Jesus says that the Father is the source of his glory.

I have given them the glory which You gave Me, that they may be one even as We are one: I in them and You in Me, that they may be perfect in unity, and that the world may know that You have sent Me, and have loved them as You have loved Me.

So, going back to my previous post, we have two possible explanations for the 35 points.

1. God manifests such attributes through Jesus Christ and gives glory to Jesus Christ.
2. God is Jesus Christ, and that's why Jesus Christ speaks and acts as the God and is the source of his own glory.

Which of the two explanations was the one given by Jesus Himself?

He was sent from heaven to this earth. He pre existed His physical birth as a man.

no one can pre exist except God.

 

[Pancho Frijoles]

Here is one of many passages where He claimed to be God and they tried to stone Him


John 5:16-18
So, because Jesus was doing these things on the Sabbath, the Jewish leaders began to persecute him. 17 In his defense Jesus said to them, “My Father is always at his work to this very day, and I too am working.” 18 For this reason they tried all the more to kill him; not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God.


John 8:58-59
Jesus answered, “I tell you the truth, before Abraham was even born, I Am !
59 At this, they picked up stones to stone him, but Jesus hid himself, slipping away from the temple grounds.

John 10:33
"We are not stoning You for any good work," said the Jews, "but for blasphemy, because You, who are a man, declare Yourself to be God."


John 19:7
"We have a law," answered the Jews, "and according to that law He must die, because He declared Himself to be the Son of God."

Please look how all these accusations are recorded in the gospel of John, which focuses in the rejection of the Jews of Jesus as the Messiah.
These are not declarations from Jesus disciples, but accusations from Jesus enemies. Jesus enemies are lying. Jesus enemies are distorting the words of Jesus to get Him arrested and killed.

Jesus defended Himself as per my previous post, since such accusation was false. So false, that the high priest could not use it to get Jesus killed.
By the time Jesus is presented to the High Priest, in order to get a valid accusation from the lips of Jesus, what does the High Priest asks Him? What does Jesus answer?

The high priest said to Him, “I adjure You by the living God, tell us whether You are the Christ, the Son of God.”
Jesus said to him, “You have said so. But I say to you, hereafter you will see the Son of Man seated at the right hand of Power and coming on the clouds of heaven.”
Then the high priest tore his clothes, saying, “He has uttered blasphemy. What further need do we have for witnesses? See, now you have heard His blasphemy. What do you think?”

Let's examine the text and its implications:

1. The high priest knows that Jesus is not claiming to God, and that's why He adjures Jesus "by the living God" (A third party)
2. The high priest does not ask Jesus whether He considers himself God, but the Messiah ("Christ"), the Son of God. "Son of God" was another name for the Messiah, the King from the seed of David. That's why he uses the terms "The Christ, the Son of God" as one single title.
3. Jesus answers He is indeed the Messiah ("The Son of Man", another name known from the Book of Daniel), who sets "at the right hand of Power". This is a metaphor of somebody exalted by God and sitting next to God, not God.
4. Jesus is accused before the Roman authority for his claim of being the Messiah ( a king leading to an independent Israel).
5. Jesus is questioned by the Roman authority about his claim to be king (Messiah)
6. Jesus is crucified with a sign upon the cross referring to his claim to be king (Messiah)
7. The repented thief recognizes Jesus as Messiah (king).
8. When the roman soldier recognizes Jesus status upon his death, he recognizes Him as Messiah (Son of God).
9. The apostles, after Pentecost, are not being persecuted for believing Jesus was God, but for believing Jesus was the Messiah and therefore, unjustly processed and killed.

So, the whole story of Jesus claiming to be God and this being the cause of his arrest and crucifixion has no support.

 

[MTMattie]

Hi MTMattie

That's correct, Jesus never explicitly called Himself God... while interestingly, Jesus explicitly called Our Father "The Only and True God" and "My God".

So what can we conclude from the absence of a explicit statement in one direction, and explicit statements in the other direction?



Their enemies were the ones making the false accusation of blasphemy to get him arrested and killed.
Such accusation was false because Jesus was not calling Himself God.
This is why Jesus didn't accept the charge. If Jesus had considered Himself God, he would have held his ground as truth. Instead, Jesus defended himself against such accusation and repeated that

1. He had been sent by God, and He just spoke and did what God asked Him to speak and do. His own testimony had no value.
2. They shouldn't consider the title "son of God" blasphemy, since in the Tanakh itself the title had been applied to men.

This is settled .

This ... "“I and the Father are one.”" ... in John 10:30, when Jesus said,

This ..." “Very truly I tell you, . . . before Abraham was born, I am!”" in John 8:58 Jesus said "I am". So did He blaspheme???????????

This..." “my Lord and my God” in John 20:28 from Thomas.
Even God the Father referred to Jesus as God: “About the Son he says, ‘Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever’” (Hebrews 1:8,
The Supremacy of the Son
…7Now about the angels He says: “He makes His angels winds, His servants flames of fire.” 8But about the Son He says: “Your throne, O God, endures forever and ever, and justice is the scepter of Your kingdom. 9You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, Your God, has anointed You above Your companions with the oil of joy.”…

Setting the Scene for Hebrews 1:8. The scene in Hebrews 1:8 takes place in the heavenly realm, where God the Father is addressing His Son, Jesus Christ.

quoting Psalm 45:6

Your throne, God, is forever and ever; The scepter of Your kingdom is a scepter of justice.
Context
My Heart is Stirred by a Noble Theme
…5Your arrows pierce the hearts of the king’s foes; the nations fall beneath your feet. 6Your throne, O God, endures forever and ever, and justice is the scepter of Your kingdom. 7You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, your God, has anointed you above your companions with the oil of joy.…

the comments of these last two came from the Berean Standard Bible.

 

[Pancho Frijoles]

This is settled .

This ... "“I and the Father are one.”" ... in John 10:30, when Jesus said,

This ..." “Very truly I tell you, . . . before Abraham was born, I am!”" in John 8:58 Jesus said "I am". So did He blaspheme???????????

This..." “my Lord and my God” in John 20:28 from Thomas.
Even God the Father referred to Jesus as God: “About the Son he says, ‘Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever’” (Hebrews 1:8,
The Supremacy of the Son
…7Now about the angels He says: “He makes His angels winds, His servants flames of fire.” 8But about the Son He says: “Your throne, O God, endures forever and ever, and justice is the scepter of Your kingdom. 9You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, Your God, has anointed You above Your companions with the oil of joy.”…

Setting the Scene for Hebrews 1:8. The scene in Hebrews 1:8 takes place in the heavenly realm, where God the Father is addressing His Son, Jesus Christ.

quoting Psalm 45:6

Your throne, God, is forever and ever; The scepter of Your kingdom is a scepter of justice.
Context
My Heart is Stirred by a Noble Theme
…5Your arrows pierce the hearts of the king’s foes; the nations fall beneath your feet. 6Your throne, O God, endures forever and ever, and justice is the scepter of Your kingdom. 7You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, your God, has anointed you above your companions with the oil of joy.…

the comments of these last two came from the Berean Standard Bible.

Thanks for your comment, MTMattie
Certainly, there are several verses in which you find indirect support for your belief.
I appreciate and respect that fact.

What I was pointing out in my last post to you, though, is about the direct statements.
While there are no explicit statement of Jesus saying "I am God", there are explicit statements of Jesus saying that His Father is God, his God, the Only God. So, nobody reading the gospel would need to shrug if asked "Who Jesus said was God?" because we have that answer crystal clear, without the need to infer anything else. For Jesus, God was the Being who have sent him to earth.

So, in gathering the evidence in favor or one or another position in this matter, it is important to give priority to explicit, direct verses over indirect verses. Particularly, if those explicit, direct verses were pronounced by Jesus Himself.

We know that all the Bible is inspired by God.
But within the Bible, it is not the same to use as a support a poem than a sermon or a conversation.
It is not the same something that an author says about Jesus, that something Jesus says about Himself.
It is not the same to quote a verse that was not addressing that topic, that a verse from a passage that is addressing the topic.

 

[synergy]

there are no explicit statement of Jesus saying "I am God",

@MTMattie did you the courtesy of mentioning John 8:58 wherein Jesus declares that he is the "I Am", the name of the OT God who existed before Abraham existed.

This ..." “Very truly I tell you, . . . before Abraham was born, I am!”" in John 8:58 Jesus said "I am". So did He blaspheme???????????

Please at least read his post before you go off on tangents that contradict the Bible.

 

[synergy]

The more I read from this one , the more I belive they have a close tie to JW.

@Runningman indirectly and inadvertently let slip earlier that he has an affinity towards what can be diagnosed as the Heresy called Adoptionism. I did some research on which cult has that heretical belief and I found some Unitarian offshoots embody it.

I'm going to ask our JW Cult friends if that's something they believe in.

Here is his heretical statement:

It refers to the beginning of Jesus’ ministry when the Word came into him. He was already 30 years old when this happened.

He utterly refuses to expound on that statement because he knows that he is in the wrong about it.

 

[Runningman]

@Runningman indirectly and inadvertently let slip earlier that he has an affinity towards what can be diagnosed as the Heresy called Adoptionism. I did some research on which cult has that heretical belief and I found some Unitarian offshoots embody it.

I'm going to ask our JW Cult friends if that's something they believe in.

Here is his heretical statement:

He utterly refuses to expound on that statement because he knows that he is in the wrong about it.

I love the John 1 and 1 John 1 discussion. It refers to the beginning of Jesus' ministry in the context. Same thing with Colossians 1:15-20 and Hebrews 1:1,2. I can prove it, too. This is a common Unitarian position, but I am not sure about the JWs. They tend to believe Jesus pre-existed as an angel while I don't.

 

[synergy]

The below looks like Jesus denied being God. When I've evangelized, most people who have never read the Bible or heard or Jesus agree that this looks like Jesus is claiming to not be God because that's the correct and common sense way to understand what he said. The only people who have an extremely difficult time with this are trinitarians who have shut their eyes and ears tightly to anything, even the Bible, when it contradicts their belief system.

Matthew 19
17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.

Mark 10
18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.

Luke 18
19 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.

There are only 2 responses that can be given:

1) Yes, Jesus is good. ​

2) No, Jesus is not good. ​

On which side of the great divide are you?

 

[Runningman]

There are only 2 responses that can be given:

1) Yes, Jesus is good. ​

2) No, Jesus is not good. ​

On which side of the great divide are you?

Jesus is a teacher and Jesus said his teachings are not his own in John 7:16. He was taught by the Father John 828. Yet Jesus said, we have one teacher, himself, in Matthew 23:8. However, when he was called good teacher in Luke 18:18-19, he denied it because he isn't the good teacher. He isn't God. That's what the subject is. Others are good, including Jesus the good shepherd and the saints who are good and faithful servants, but none of them are God except the Father. Focus.

 

[TomL]

Concerning Philippians 2:6... A study of other lexicons (many of them Trinitarian) gives a totally different picture than does Vine’s Lexicon. E. W. Bullinger gives morphē a one-word definition, “form. The scholarly lexicon by Walter Bauer, translated and revised by Arndt and Gingrich, has under morphē, “form, outward appearance, shape.” Gerard Kittel, TDNT, has “form, external appearance.” Kittel also notes that morphē and schema are often interchangeable. Robert Thayer, in his well-respected lexicon, has under morphē, “the form by which a person or thing strikes the vision; the external appearance.” Thayer says that the Greeks said that children reflect the appearance (morphē) of their parents, something easily noticed in every culture. Thayer also notes that some scholars try to make morphē refer to that which is intrinsic and essential, in contrast to that which is outward and accidental, but says, “the distinction is rejected by many.”

Um that really does nothing to address much of what I stated

How can an impersonal thing

have an attitude of humility?

Exist in the form of God?

Consider?

take another form?

Philippians 2:3–7 (NASB 2020) — 3 Do nothing from selfishness or empty conceit, but with humility consider one another as more important than yourselves; 4 do not merely look out for your own personal interests, but also for the interests of others. 5 Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6 who, as He already existed in the form of God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped, 7 but emptied Himself by taking the form of a bond-servant and being born in the likeness of men.

BTW TDNT

Thus the phrase μορφὴ θεοῦ, which Paul coins in obvious antithesis to μορφὴ δούλου, can be understood only in the light of the context. The appearance assumed by the incarnate Lord, the image of humiliation and obedient submission, stands in the sharpest conceivable contrast to His former appearance, the image of sovereign divine majesty, whose restoration in a new and even more glorious form is depicted for the exalted κύριος at the conclusion of the hymn, v. 10f. The specific outward sign of the humanity of Jesus is the μορφὴ δούλου, and of His essential divine likeness (τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ → III, 353 f.) the μορφὴ θεοῦ.

The μορφὴ θεοῦ in which the pre-existent Christ was is simply the divine δόξα; Paul’s ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ ὑπάρχων corresponds exactly to Jn. 17:5: τῇ δόξῃ ᾗ εἶχον πρὸ τοῦ τὸν κόσμον εἶναι παρὰ σοί.




Johannes Behm, “Μορφή, Μορφόω, Μόρφωσις, Μεταμορφόω,” ed. Gerhard Kittel, Geoffrey W. Bromiley, and Gerhard Friedrich, Theological Dictionary of the New Testament (Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans, 1964–), 751.

 

[TomL]

Jesus denied being God. He also never said he is God. Looks like he isn't God by his own words. Why do you have a problem with the Father being the only true God like Jesus said?

He approved the statement of Thomas

John 20:28–29 (KJV 1900) — 28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God. 29 Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.

 

[MTMattie]

Thanks for your comment, MTMattie
Certainly, there are several verses in which you find indirect support for your belief.
I appreciate and respect that fact.

What I was pointing out in my last post to you, though, is about the direct statements.
While there are no explicit statement of Jesus saying "I am God",

I and the Father are one states it definitively, UNLESS YOU are going to pull the Joseph as Father thing.... Or that His True Father is the Holy Spirit.

there are explicit statements of Jesus saying that His Father is God, his God, the Only God. So, nobody reading the gospel would need to shrug if asked "Who Jesus said was God?" because we have that answer crystal clear, without the need to infer anything else. For Jesus, God was the Being who have sent him to earth.

So, in gathering the evidence in favor or one or another position in this matter, it is important to give priority to explicit, direct verses over indirect verses. Particularly, if those explicit, direct verses were pronounced by Jesus Himself.

We know that all the Bible is inspired by God.
But within the Bible, it is not the same to use as a support a poem than a sermon or a conversation.
It is not the same something that an author says about Jesus, that something Jesus says about Himself.
It is not the same to quote a verse that was not addressing that topic, that a verse from a passage that is addressing the topic.

 

[Runningman]

He approved the statement of Thomas

John 20:28–29 (KJV 1900) — 28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God. 29 Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.

That's a stretch to say Jesus approved. What did he say directly after that? Didn't he suggest Thomas is not blessed for requiring seeing him to believe?