Sorry you are simply ignoring the evidence
Jesus is called God
He is given titles which belong only to God
He is stated to do or be involved in situations which were spoken of Yahweh in the old covenant
Jesus denied being God
- Thread starter Runningman
- Start date
Jesus is called God
He is given titles which belong only to God
He is stated to do or be involved in situations which were spoken of Yahweh in the old covenant
The question was
So how many (mere) men fulfill this description
Hebrews 1:1–3 (KJV 1900) — 1 GOD, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, 2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds; 3 Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;
But you are relying on a mere man for salvation
Peterlag
Active Member
I never said "mere men" but many on these sites use the word "mere" and I don't know why. The Messiah who is the son of God is not a "mere man."
Peterlag
Active Member
Much of the Roman Catholic doctrine was assimilated into Protestantism and is still being passed along as Christian groups continue to split off from one another. In a nutshell that is why even the independent church in your neighborhood today most probably believes that there is a trinity, dead people are alive, God is in control of everything that happens, the Four Gospels are written to Christians, and water baptism is relevant. And then there's everything that you know about our sin nature was taught to you by them.
Peterlag
Active Member
I have answered all of your questions on 3 or 4 other posts even on this site. They are always the same like John 1:1 or John 1:14. What's your verse and I will comment on that too. In the mean time here's John 1:14...
John 1:14
The "Word" is the wisdom, plan or purpose of God and the Word became flesh as Jesus Christ. Thus, Jesus Christ was the Word in the flesh, which is shortened to the Word for ease of speaking. Scripture is also the Word in writing. Everyone agrees that the Word in writing had a beginning. So did the Word in the flesh. In fact, the Greek text of Matthew 1:18 says that very clearly: "Now the beginning of Jesus Christ was in this manner..." The modern Greek texts all read "beginning" in Matthew 1:18. Birth is considered an acceptable translation since the beginning of some things is birth, and so most translations read birth. Nevertheless, the proper understanding of Matthew 1:18 is the beginning of Jesus Christ. In the beginning God had a plan, a purpose, which became flesh when Jesus was conceived.
praise_yeshua
Active Member
Amplified Bible? Who did you buy that from... God?
You never deal with anything. I'll just leave you to yourself. Enjoy what that brings you.
Well guess what the Orthodox church holds the same doctrine regarding the trinity
praise_yeshua
Active Member
This "guy" doesn't know much of anything concerning theology.
Do you affirm then he pre-existed the incarnation
That he existed in the form of The God
and that he is properly called God in that existence
I think he thought to tar trinitarians with Roman Catholic biases.
Runningman
Active Member
God didn't die. Sorry. A man was sacrificed.
More than just a man
The word who was God and became flesh yet remained the God of believers
John 20:28–29 (NASB 2020) — 28 Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord and my God!” 29 Jesus said to him, “Because you have seen Me, have you now believed? Blessed are they who did not see, and yet believed.”
These believers have a blessing pronounced upon them for believing even though they might have not personally seen
Runningman
Active Member
This is the subject you should desperately try to avoid as a Trinitarian. The Bible testifies that God is immortal and cannot die. You say Jesus is God. Jesus died. Therefore God died. This point alone should be sufficient to expose the vulnerable underbelly of Trinitarianism. Think about it. Do you actually have a sin sacrifice?
Bob Carabbio
Active Member
praise_yeshua
Active Member
Typical nonsense answer. You're over simplifying.
What value is there to be found in a simple man dying? Why don't you start there.
civic
Active Member
Yes which contradicts scripture since it says no man can pay for, redeem another’s man’s sins.
He is up a creek without a paddle with no Savior for his sins.
God alone is the Savior.
How is it you are incapable of understanding
The word which was deity took on humanity but never gave up his deity
The humanity could die but the deity could not
Psalm 49:7–9 (NASB 2020) — 7 No one can by any means redeem another Or give God a ransom for him— 8 For the redemption of his soul is priceless, And he should cease imagining forever— 9 That he might live on eternally, That he might not undergo decay.
Runningman
Active Member
In Christianity we have a sin sacrifice. A man with blood who died and purchased for God those from every nation.
I have a feeling you won't be singing a song like this any time soon. It's not in your belief system.
Revelation 5
8When He had taken the scroll, the four living creatures and the twenty-four elders fell down before the Lamb. Each one had a harp, and they were holding golden bowls full of incense, which are the prayers of the saints. 9And they sang a new song:
“Worthy are You to take the scroll and open its seals,
because You were slain,
and by Your blood You purchased for God
those from every tribe and tongue and people and nation.
