Jesus denied being God

[Runningman]

It has been recorded that Jesus denied that he is God in the verses below from the KJV:

Matthew 19​

17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.​

​

Mark 10​

18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.​

​

Luke 18​

19 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.​

Based on the above Scripture, we can find the following information:

Jesus rhetorically questions why he is being called "good" and says that only God is good. This means that Jesus is distinguishing himself from God and that absolute goodness belongs exclusively to God. In saying this, Jesus denies that he possesses the absolute goodness that God has.

This distinction that Jesus pointed out between himself and God is evident in his rhetorical question about why he is being called good. If Jesus were God, then it would not be consistent for him to deny being called good and thus deny having this divine attribute of God.

Since Jesus denied having the absolute goodness of God, Jesus strongly inferred that he is just a teacher and a prophet. In John 8:28, Jesus stated, "I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things." Therefore, Jesus was himself taught by his God and Father. Needing to be taught by God means that Jesus is not omniscient and didn't inherently know the things he himself was teaching until he was taught.

Therefore, Jesus denied being God.

 

[101G]

It has been recorded that Jesus denied that he is God in the verses below from the KJV:

Matthew 19​

17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.​

​

Mark 10​

18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.​

​

Luke 18​

19 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.​

Based on the above Scripture, we can find the following information:

Jesus rhetorically questions why he is being called "good" and says that only God is good. This means that Jesus is distinguishing himself from God and that absolute goodness belongs exclusively to God. In saying this, Jesus denies that he possesses the absolute goodness that God has.

This distinction that Jesus pointed out between himself and God is evident in his rhetorical question about why he is being called good. If Jesus were God, then it would not be consistent for him to deny being called good and thus deny having this divine attribute of God.

Since Jesus denied having the absolute goodness of God, Jesus strongly inferred that he is just a teacher and a prophet. In John 8:28, Jesus stated, "I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things." Therefore, Jesus was himself taught by his God and Father. Needing to be taught by God means that Jesus is not omniscient and didn't inherently know the things he himself was teaching until he was taught.

Therefore, Jesus denied being God.

did the Lord Jesus say he was "BAD", or WRONG, the opposite of Good. he only ask, "WHY.... callest thou me good? is not the Father is Good also? for is not the Lord Jesus God in the ECHAD. so correctly why, why, why, just callest only him good, when he's the ECHAD of himself in flesh.

101G.

 

[Runningman]

did the Lord Jesus say he was "BAD", or WRONG, the opposite of Good. he only ask, "WHY.... callest thou me good? is not the Father is Good also? for is not the Lord Jesus God in the ECHAD. so correctly why, why, why, just callest only him good, when he's the ECHAD of himself in flesh.

101G.

It's a rhetorical question to which Jesus immediately provided the answer. He was correcting the one who called him good. In other words, Jesus was saying to not call him good, but rather call God good.

 

[Bob Carabbio]

It has been recorded that Jesus denied that he is God in the verses below from the KJV:

Matthew 19​

17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.​

​

Mark 10​

18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.​

​

Luke 18​

19 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.​

Based on the above Scripture, we can find the following information:

Jesus rhetorically questions why he is being called "good" and says that only God is good. This means that Jesus is distinguishing himself from God and that absolute goodness belongs exclusively to God. In saying this, Jesus denies that he possesses the absolute goodness that God has.

This distinction that Jesus pointed out between himself and God is evident in his rhetorical question about why he is being called good. If Jesus were God, then it would not be consistent for him to deny being called good and thus deny having this divine attribute of God.

Since Jesus denied having the absolute goodness of God, Jesus strongly inferred that he is just a teacher and a prophet. In John 8:28, Jesus stated, "I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things." Therefore, Jesus was himself taught by his God and Father. Needing to be taught by God means that Jesus is not omniscient and didn't inherently know the things he himself was teaching until he was taught.

Therefore, Jesus denied being God.

He also said I and the father are ONE. (John 10:30). John 1 gives details.

 

[Fred]

In other words, Jesus was saying to not call him good, but rather call God good.​

The outlandish assertion above was already refuted here:

https://berean-apologetics.community.forum/threads/why-the-trinity-is-wrong-language-usage.201/page-10#post-110881

 

[101G]

It's a rhetorical question to which Jesus immediately provided the answer. He was correcting the one who called him good. In other words, Jesus was saying to not call him good, but rather call God good.

ERROR, the term "why" means, "for what reason or purpose". so, WHY was in response to the question. WHY because he is God, did not the Lord Jesus say, John 13:13 "Ye call me Master and Lord: and ye say well; for so I am."

101G.

 

[Runningman]

He also said I and the father are ONE. (John 10:30). John 1 gives details.

Not a point. Jesus said the disciples are one with each other, Jesus, and God in the same way Jesus is one with God in John 17:21-22.

 

[Runningman]

ERROR, the term "why" means, "for what reason or purpose". so, WHY was in response to the question. WHY because he is God, did not the Lord Jesus say, John 13:13 "Ye call me Master and Lord: and ye say well; for so I am."

101G.

The conventional logic I provided you in the OP is correct. Please read it again. There is no mistaking what Jesus said for being an admission/denial that he is not himself God.

 

[101G]

The conventional logic I provided you in the OP is correct. Please read it again. There is no mistaking what Jesus said for being an admission/denial that he is not himself God.

and what 101G said, still valid. and here he again acknowledges that he is God. John 8:58 "Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am."

that seal the case. scripture don't LIE.

101G.

 

[Runningman]

and what 101G said, still valid. and here he again acknowledges that he is God. John 8:58 "Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am."

that seal the case. scripture don't LIE.

101G.

I don't see the word God in John 8:58. You are simply interpreting it to mean such when in fact it doesn't actually say any such things. Scripture doesn't lie, but people do. I believe you are misunderstanding John 8:58. Jesus never directly said he is God. Honest people all admit this.

 

[101G]

Not a point. Jesus said the disciples are one with each other, Jesus, and God in the same way Jesus is one with God in John 17:21-22.

ERROR, John 17:11 "And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are." are not the Son in the Father and the Father is in the Son? John 14:10 "Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works." and is not the Father and the Son in us? John 14:23 "Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him."

101G.

 

[Runningman]

ERROR, John 17:11 "And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are." are not the Son in the Father and the Father is in the Son? John 14:10 "Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works." and is not the Father and the Son in us? John 14:23 "Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him."

101G.

This isn't really related to my OP and I don't really want this to go off topic but there is unity in the body of Christ. You're free to open a thread if you want to discuss that or study it in your free time. See 1 Corinthians 12:12 if that helps.

 

[101G]

I don't see the word God in John 8:58. You are simply interpreting it to mean such when in fact it doesn't actually say any such things. Scripture doesn't lie, but people do. I believe you are misunderstanding John 8:58. Jesus never directly said he is God. Honest people all admit this.

what is it you cannot understand in "I?" CONTEX, who is speaking?

101G

 

[101G]

This isn't really related to my OP and I don't really want this to go off topic but there is unity in the body of Christ. You're free to open a thread if you want to discuss that or study it in your free time. See 1 Corinthians 12:12 if that helps.

you asked.... and 101G answered. your topic states, "Jesus denied being God" well he did not. so your topic is answered.

101G

 

[Runningman]

what is it you cannot understand in "I?" CONTEX, who is speaking?

101G

Abruptly ending a sentence with "I am" is typically not how people talk and Jesus never talks like that. Jesus was probably saying something to the effect of "I am the man." Which is how those Greek words "ego eimi" are translated elsewhere such as John 9:9 for example.

 

[Runningman]

you asked.... and 101G answered. your topic states, "Jesus denied being God" well he did not. so your topic is answered.

101G

I was talking to Bob, but Jesus said the disciples are one with each other, Jesus, and God in the same way Jesus is one with God in John 17:21-22. Unity or oneness with God isn't a point that makes Jesus God.

 

[101G]

I was talking to Bob, but Jesus said the disciples are one with each other, Jesus, and God in the same way Jesus is one with God in John 17:21-22. Unity or oneness with God isn't a point that makes Jesus God.

when one desire darkness, let them have darkness. shake the dust off one's feet.

101G.

 

[Runningman]

when one desire darkness, let them have darkness. shake the dust off one's feet.

101G.

I agree. I will be here if you change your mind. See you around.

 

[101G]

I agree. I will be here if you change your mind. See you around.

are you sure? ...... (smile).

101G.

 

[Runningman]

are you sure? ...... (smile).

101G.

Lord willing of course. Otherwise, yes, that's my plan.