EclipseEventSigns
Active Member
Read the entire page. It covers the issue of esau not being part of the Israelites, how later due to political events and such, the edomites (esau) were absorbed into the hebrews. The two groups were not the same, yet ended up under the same title later, in time. The second article amplifies the subject. The point is that jews, as a term, going up to the hellenistic period, included many who were not part of the Israelites. The page talks also about how even until 4 generations (of observation?) they were not considered such. The word jew includes those who were not israelites, clearly, and for me is not a good term to describe the israelites as it was a later styling including many other people absorbed for various reasons under a regional or political domain. The information is there. The quote must be from a later page, and I will need to find a full pdf for that volume to provide it. Though from the same book, I said above that the page was different from the page I remembered (even though it covers the same issue, which must have continued to the next page.) I see that later translators, to simplify or for their own reasons (and not all translators agree it was a good idea), just labeled any hebrew or any edomite jewish. In translation the word was used as if the same. I do not agree with that simplification, because it confuses what is meant by a hebrew soul.
In the same way, I do not agree with the use of the Greek term for soul to explain the hebrew word npsh, which also means soul. Since for each group, the Greeks and Hebrews, the soul is entirely different and the words are not synonymous. People disagree and if you do not like what I said, I get that. You do not have to.
This is your original statement:
"The editor of the jewish encyclopedia (multi vol. *encyclopedia judaica), himself jewish, was quite clear that jewish and hebrew are not synonyms and that the israelites were not jewish.
*1925 encyclopedia judaica, Vol. 5 page 41"
There is no text on that page 41 that claims "jewish and hebrew are not synonyms" or "israelites were not jewish". It simply is not there. Neither is anything of the fact even implied. The page is outlining the history of the Edomites. The only leap of logic that might be possible is to point to the Herodean dynasty as being king over Judea. Herod being an Idumean and an Edomite. But as Scripture shows all Jews knew their family lineage. When Caesar commanded that the population return to their town of family origin, everyone was able to do that - to their original tribal cities.
This stated faulty interpretation of historical facts would then need to go so far as to claim that there has never been such a thing as pure Israelite nation. Rahab, of Jericho, wasn't of the 12 tribes and yet Joshua allowed her and her entire family to live and settle in the Promised Land. Ruth, also, was not of the 12 tribes. She was of Moab and yet she was married into the Israel nation. Both of those are included in the very family lineage of the Messiah. He Himself who has the title King of the Jews.
[Mat 2:2 LSB] 2 "Where is He who has been born King of the Jews? For we saw His star in the east and have come to worship Him."
[Mat 27:11 LSB] 11 Now Jesus stood before the governor, and the governor questioned Him, saying, "Are You the King of the Jews?" And Jesus said to him, "You yourself say [it]."