You continue to avoid John 1 for obvious reasons, since John 1:1 and John 1:18 plainly present the Word as both distinct from the Father and as being God, sharing the same divine nature (omnipresence, omnipotence), which radically conflicts with unitarianism.
The passages you list all affirm Monotheism not unitarianism when read in context. In 1 Corinthians 8:6, Paul reformulates the Jewish confession of Deuteronomy 6:4 by including both “one God, the Father” and “one Lord, Jesus Christ,” placing Jesus within the divine identity rather than outside it. Likewise Ephesians 4:6 calls the Father “one God and Father of all,” yet in the same passage Paul distinguishes “one Lord” (Christ), again preserving both unity and distinction. John 17:3 identifies the Father as the only true God but immediately joins Him with Jesus Christ as the one sent, showing relational distinction rather than denying the Son’s nature. John 20:17 reflects Christ speaking from His mediatorial role in which He relates to the Father as His God while still being confessed as God elsewhere in the same book. John 14:28 speaks of the Father being “greater” in the context of Christ’s earthly humiliation and mission, not of nature/essence. 1 Timothy 2:5 calls Jesus the “man” mediator because mediation requires His genuine humanity, not because Paul denied His divinity. Taken together, all these verses affirm that there is one God while distinguishing Father and Son, supporting biblical monotheism rather than the judaizing and heretical reduction of God to a single unitarian person.
Keep those Monotheistic Trinitarian-supporting verses coming!
This argument collapses immediately since right off the bat you presented another falsehood "
the Word as both distinct from the Father and as being God, sharing the same divine nature (omnipresence, omnipotence)" which is not stated anywhere in that verse. You are relying extreme heavily on trinitarian assumptions and then projecting them into the text rather than allowing the text to define its own categories.
In John 1:1, the Word or Logos refers to God's self-expression, wisdom, and His words of creation which is in line with the definition of Logos. After that in John 1:14, God's words became flesh, i.e, Jesus was created. You have not presented any evidence that the Word is a pre-existent incarnate being.
You did it again in John 1:18 because it says "no one has ever seen God" but then just moments ago you claimed that the Word is God. If that were so, then you have just created a contradiction since surely thousands of people saw Jesus contrary John saying no one has ever seen God. John 1:18 is about Jesus revealing or explaining the unseen God, not being the unseen God himself.
Your argument about 1 Cor. 8:6 collapses immediately as well. Right off the bat in 1 Cor. 8:6. Paul said “for us there is one God, the Father" which is an explicitly declaration about who God. Read it again and you may notice Paul didn't say the "Father and Son" are that one God nor mention the Holy Spirit at all. With someone as important as accurately defining who God is, it would seem if you had your way then Paul must have failed, but it's you who is the failure. Paul accurately identified God and you can't stand it. So the Deuteronomy 6:4 Shema is regarding the Father. The one and only God, who is YHWH, is the Father.
The same kind of clear declaration about who God is appears in John 17:3 in which Jesus point blank said of the Father that He is "alone the true God" but Jesus is the one who was sent. Two categories here: the Father who is alone the true God and the one sent by Him. There is a sender, a sent, a God, and a non-God in John 17:3.
You are really straining with John 20:17 which means simply what it says and you can't change the fact that Jesus identified his and his brother's God as the Father only. The reason you see Jesus' definition of God as an argument is because you don't actually have the same religion, beliefs, or ideology as Jesus does because you cannot repeat what Jesus says without importing your personal philosophy to change what he said.
I am glad you have the chance to express your disagreement with Scripture, but 1 Timothy 2:5 couldn't be anymore explicit than what it says. It says "there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus.” This means that God is one party, humanity is a different party, and Jesus is the mediator between them. Jesus is a go-between for God an humanity. Why? Well, Jesus is a high priest that's why. Just like the other high priests before him who mediated between God and man, Jesus is doing the same kind of thing.