Axe and two 38's

I guess you would have to speak to Paul about that, since he obviously is not saying that in 1 Cor.15:14 and 17. If Christ is not raised, he said, then your faith is vain and worthless. Why did he not say that your faith, and your confession and your baptism are vain and worthless - all things that you say are required for salvation? The truth is obvious. Because Paul didn't believe that confession and baptism are required for salvation - only faith. The truth is that you are willfully disregarding these verses.
Dwight, what is faith? It is not just the mental acceptance you are promoting. Faith REQUIRES action; if there is no action there is no faith at all. When Paul says that faith is required, he is including in "faith" all the actions that are mentioned anywhere else in Scripture that God says "lead to" or "result in" receiving salvation.
Regarding the verses in Romans, I am not and have not disregarded those verses. I have told you many times that the context is of someone who already believes and that is shown to be a believer and saved by his confession, which follows his salvation.
What???? He is "saved by is confession, which follows his salvation"? You cannot be saved by something that follows after salvation. That is like saying you are pulled out of the mud by the towel you wrapped yourself in after you were on firm ground; it makes NO sense.
You insist on translating eis as "resulting in" salvation, but it literally means "to righteousness" and "to salvation", which is what the NASB shows in the margins - which requires a totally different meaning than "resulting in". What is that meaning? I think it means "shown to be righteous" and "shown to (already) have salvation"
The Greek "eis" (meaning "for") can indeed mean "in order to" or "because you have". It is contingent upon the context, along with the precedent of other passages, to determine the meaning intended in each usage. As for Acts 2:38, the intent is clearly shown in Acts 3:19 to be "in order to". As for the usage in Rom 10:10, the passage would make no sense to interpret "eis" to mean "because you have been". The NASB, in the marginal notation, says "to righteousness" and "to salvation". You say that "eis" means "in order to" when applied to "belief", but when applied to "confession" the meaning changes to "because you have"? There is no Biblical indication that the meaning would suddenly change from one to the other. It is, and must be, the same meaning for both.
If we go by your translation, then we're saved by works, which is the opposite of what the Bible and Paul teach. If we go by my translation, then we're saved by faith, which is what the Bible and Paul teach.
Only in your twisted understanding of what "works" means. Just taking an action does not mean that the action is an act of merit, or that the action is earning a reward. Even Jesus, in His parable of the unprofitable servant (Luke 17:7-10), says that a servant's duty is to do what he is told and he does not deserve or merit even a "thank you" from his master for doing what he is told. He merits condemnation and punishment for not doing what he is told, because it is his duty to do what is commanded. But a good master will deliver on promises he has made, and God has promised that if we confess Jesus, then Jesus will confess us. If we are buried with Jesus in baptism, then the Holy Spirit will remove our sins and resurrect us as He did Jesus. If we repent of our sins, then we will be cleansed from the stain of those sins.
 
Dwight, what is faith? It is not just the mental acceptance you are promoting. Faith REQUIRES action; if there is no action there is no faith at all. When Paul says that faith is required, he is including in "faith" all the actions that are mentioned anywhere else in Scripture that God says "lead to" or "result in" receiving salvation.
You obviously avoided my point and didn't answer my question, which you often do.
My point was: Paul said that "if Christ has not been raised, your faith is vain and worthless." 1 Cor.15:14 and 17
If confession and baptism were necessary for salvation, Paul would have said, "your faith and your confession and your baptism are vain and worthless."
So Paul is saying that your salvation hinges on, or relies on, your faith, not on your faith and your confession and your baptism.
You have no clue what Paul is thinking when he says "faith" - you can't read his mind. And you are simply speculating when you say that "lead to" and "result in" are the correct interpretations of eis. Granted I am speculating also when I propose how I think they should be translated. However, I believe my interpretation agrees with the rest of Scripture, that we're not saved by works and yours does not.
What???? He is "saved by is confession, which follows his salvation"? You cannot be saved by something that follows after salvation. That is like saying you are pulled out of the mud by the towel you wrapped yourself in after you were on firm ground; it makes NO sense.
You misunderstood my statement. I'll repeat it here: "I have told you many times that the context is of someone who already believes and that is shown to be a believer and saved by his confession, which follows his salvation."
Maybe it would be better to restate it, because I see it can be misunderstood.
I believe the context of Rom.10:9-10 is that Paul is speaking of a believer, i.e. he is already saved. Take me, for example. I have been baptized and I confess Jesus as my Lord all the time. My confession of Jesus has followed my salvation. That is to say, that after I was saved, I began to confess Jesus as my Lord, not before I was saved. The very fact that I continually confess Him as my Lord displays or shows that I have been saved.
The Greek "eis" (meaning "for") can indeed mean "in order to" or "because you have". It is contingent upon the context, along with the precedent of other passages, to determine the meaning intended in each usage. As for Acts 2:38, the intent is clearly shown in Acts 3:19 to be "in order to". As for the usage in Rom 10:10, the passage would make no sense to interpret "eis" to mean "because you have been". The NASB, in the marginal notation, says "to righteousness" and "to salvation". You say that "eis" means "in order to" when applied to "belief", but when applied to "confession" the meaning changes to "because you have"? There is no Biblical indication that the meaning would suddenly change from one to the other. It is, and must be, the same meaning for both.
No, I never said that eis means "in order to". I said that it means "to" righteousness and "to" salvation. Nor did I indicate that the meaning changes from one phrase to the other phrase, as you claimed. I agree with you that the meaning must be the same for both. But you and I disagree on the meaning. I believe that "to" righteousness " means "which reveals that he already has" righteousness and "to" salvation means "which reveals that he already has" salvation.

I can hear you objecting to that, that it can't possibly mean that. Well I too object to what you think it means. You think it means "results in" righteousness and "results in" salvation. That is, this person is just becoming righteous and he is just becoming saved.
I, on the other hand, think that this person is already righteous and he is already saved.

Only in your twisted understanding of what "works" means. Just taking an action does not mean that the action is an act of merit, or that the action is earning a reward. Even Jesus, in His parable of the unprofitable servant (Luke 17:7-10), says that a servant's duty is to do what he is told and he does not deserve or merit even a "thank you" from his master for doing what he is told. He merits condemnation and punishment for not doing what he is told, because it is his duty to do what is commanded. But a good master will deliver on promises he has made, and God has promised that if we confess Jesus, then Jesus will confess us. If we are buried with Jesus in baptism, then the Holy Spirit will remove our sins and resurrect us as He did Jesus. If we repent of our sins, then we will be cleansed from the stain of those sins.
Believing that confessing with your mouth Jesus as Lord is a work - is not twisted. If you're suggesting, from the above paragraph, that confession with your mouth is NOT a work - I say you're wrong. Just because it is something we ought to do, that it is our duty to do, does not means that it ceases to be a work. It is one physical action, which is a work, that you require (along with another physical action, which is also a work - baptism) for a person to get saved.

This is why my conclusion is that your interpretation is that we're saved by works and believing. My interpretation is that we're saved by believing alone. Then after we're saved, that is after we're "created in Christ Jesus", Ephesians 2:10 says that we are to "walk in good works".

That is, works follow our salvation, they do not precede our salvation.
 
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You obviously avoided my point and didn't answer my question, which you often do.
I am not avoiding your point. I am pointing out that the faith you say is the only thing necessary to receive salvation must include the actions that you say are not necessary, or else it is not real faith.
My point was: Paul said that "if Christ has not been raised, your faith is vain and worthless." 1 Cor.15:14 and 17
This is true, but it does not negate the necessity of obedience to God's commands.
If confession and baptism were necessary for salvation, Paul would have said, "your faith and your confession and your baptism are vain and worthless."
Must I say that "your soap and shampoo and loofah are vain"? Or can I not just say "your shower is vain", and include in my meaning all of those other things?
So Paul is saying that your salvation hinges on, or relies on, your faith, not on your faith and your confession and your baptism.
You have no clue what Paul is thinking when he says "faith" - you can't read his mind. And you are simply speculating when you say that "lead to" and "result in" are the correct interpretations of eis. Granted I am speculating also when I propose how I think they should be translated. However, I believe my interpretation agrees with the rest of Scripture, that we're not saved by works and yours does not.
I am glad you agree that you are speculating. But your speculation does NOT agree with the rest of Scripture. Acts 3:19 is very clear that repentance results in receiving salvation. Rom 6:1-7, Col 2:11-14, and 1 Pet 3:21 are very clear that receiving salvation is the result of baptism (not that baptism has anything to do with earning or meriting salvation).
You misunderstood my statement. I'll repeat it here: "I have told you many times that the context is of someone who already believes and that is shown to be a believer and saved by his confession, which follows his salvation."
Maybe it would be better to restate it, because I see it can be misunderstood.
I believe the context of Rom.10:9-10 is that Paul is speaking of a believer, i.e. he is already saved. Take me, for example. I have been baptized and I confess Jesus as my Lord all the time. My confession of Jesus has followed my salvation. That is to say, that after I was saved, I began to confess Jesus as my Lord, not before I was saved. The very fact that I continually confess Him as my Lord displays or shows that I have been saved.
Your conjecture is clearly incorrect. Rom 10:9-10 is not talking about someone who has already been saved. Look at the end of verse 9. "the word of faith which we are preaching, 9 that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved; 10 for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation."
"Will be" is future tense. It is not talking about someone who has already received salvation.
No, I never said that eis means "in order to".
No, I said that. You claim it means "because you have been", but that is inconsistent with other Scripture.
I said that it means "to" righteousness and "to" salvation. Nor did I indicate that the meaning changes from one phrase to the other phrase, as you claimed. I agree with you that the meaning must be the same for both. But you and I disagree on the meaning. I believe that "to" righteousness " means "which reveals that he already has" righteousness and "to" salvation means "which reveals that he already has" salvation.
You claim that belief must come before salvation but confession comes after salvation. Yet now you claim that "eis" must mean the same in both cases. Which one is it? Be consistent. It either means "in order to receive" in both cases, or it means "because you have already received" in both cases.
I can hear you objecting to that, that it can't possibly mean that. Well I too object to what you think it means. You think it means "results in" righteousness and "results in" salvation. That is, this person is just becoming righteous and he is just becoming saved.
I, on the other hand, think that this person is already righteous and he is already saved.
As pointed out above, verse 9 disproves your claim. It says that the one who believe and confesses Jesus "WILL BE" saved, not "has been" saved.
Believing that confessing with your mouth Jesus as Lord is a work - is not twisted. If you're suggesting, from the above paragraph, that confession with your mouth is NOT a work - I say you're wrong. Just because it is something we ought to do, that it is our duty to do, does not means that it ceases to be a work. It is one physical action, which is a work, that you require (along with another physical action, which is also a work - baptism) for a person to get saved.
I didn't say it is not a "work". Clearly it is a physical action. But it is not a work of merit. It does not earn salvation in any way. But it is absolutely necessary to receive salvation. As Jesus Himself said, if you confess me, I will confess you. If you don't confess me, I won't confess you.
Now which must come first? Us confessing Him? Or Him confessing us? Clearly, we must confess Him first, and then He will confess us (and Him confessing us equates to salvation).
This is why my conclusion is that your interpretation is that we're saved by works and believing. My interpretation is that we're saved by believing alone. Then after we're saved, that is after we're "created in Christ Jesus", Ephesians 2:10 says that we are to "walk in good works".
Scripture says that we are NOT saved by believing alone. It is very explicit that we are not saved by believing alone. We are saved because of the death and resurrection of Jesus. And we receive the benefit of His sacrifice through repentance (Acts 3:19), confession of Jesus as Lord (Rom 10:9-10), and baptism (Acts 2:38, 1 Pet 3:21, Rom 6:1-7, Col 2:11-14). Please remember that all Scripture must be true and accurate at the same time (meaning you cannot exclude or ignore any passage), and that our doctrine must account for every Scripture that speaks on the topic our doctrine addresses.

Yes, we are to walk in good works after we receive salvation. But good works are serving the needy (James 1:27), generosity (2 Cor 9:7), and daily obedience to God's commandments.
 
Preaching the word is more critical. Anyone can do the dunking, God does the saving in remitting sin and giving the gift of the Holy Spirit. The water is spiritually inert, but it IS the means God prescribed.
by the pronuciation hI me and not jay me
i beleive my friend is of hispanic origin .
yeah lots of people mess that name up my friend .
 
Another misunderstood passage is Acts 22:12-16. Ananias appears to be saying that if Saul gets baptized, his sins will be washed away. Once again, that can't be true, because no work washes away sins. Ananias knew that Saul had already believed in Jesus, which is why he called him "Brother Saul". I suppose it's possible that Saul had not yet been converted on the road, but highly unlikely. Anyway, Ananias' words "calling on His (Jesus') name" is what could have saved him, if he was not already saved.
Was Saul still stained with sin when Ananias talked to him three days after the Road experience?
 
by the pronuciation hI me and not jay me
i beleive my friend is of hispanic origin .
yeah lots of people mess that name up my friend .
Long story short, I am not hispanic, but while we were living in El Paso many years ago, my best friend’ little girl could not say my name, which is Randy, but she came out with “Jaime” instead, and it stuck. I am still known in family circles over 40 years later as Uncle Jaime! 🤓
 
Long story short, I am not hispanic, but while we were living in El Paso many years ago, my best friend’ little girl could not say my name, which is Randy, but she came out with “Jaime” instead, and it stuck. I am still known in family circles over 40 years later as Uncle Jaime! 🤓
While we both share the same name of randy or randall
Beleive me when i say the nicknames i been given are far less friendly than Jaime .
And all for pointing ONLY to CHRIST and not allowing folks
to go into the broad love road of a harlot called ecumeincism and her intefaith lie
that entials ALL religoins are serving the same GOD in different ways .
And why do i expose that , CAUSE IT ALIE and will save none and damn all who buy it .
FOR JESUS alone is the only WAY TO GOD
and if one believes not The testimony GOD gave OF the SON
they are in fact callling GOD a liar .
SO allow me to leave us with a reminder .
WHO is a liar
But HE who denies that JESUS IS THE CHRIST , He is anti christ . Never let a smooth talking
harlot coax us into a lie she calls love .
 
1 John 5:14 KJV
And this is the confidence that we have in him, that, if we ask any thing according to his will, he heareth us:

John 6:40 KJV - And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.

2 Timothy 1:12 KJV
For the which cause I also suffer these things: nevertheless I am not ashamed: for I know whom I have believed, and am persuaded that he is able to keep that which I have committed unto him against that day.

Believing is the condition of eternal salvation.

Baptism is one of the right responses for having been given eternal life.

Baptism 'saves' as in.. a life salvaged to Christ, by the commitment to Jesus signified in baptism, but it doesn't save eternally.

'Save' does not always mean eternal deliverance.
 
We know that David had faith that God would forgive His sin with Bathsheba. We see that clearly in Psalm 51. Since faith without works is dead, what works did David perform to show that he had faith that God would forgive him?
 
We know that David had faith that God would forgive His sin with Bathsheba. We see that clearly in Psalm 51. Since faith without works is dead, what works did David perform to show that he had faith that God would forgive him?
At the time of David's life, the acts of faith necessary for forgiveness were proscribed by the Law. But those acts of faith do not translate into the New Covenant, because Jesus is the one sacrifice that actually takes away sin from those who lived after Him, and those who lived before Him. Under the NC, all of the acts of faith that NT Scripture say "lead to" and/or "result in" receiving salvation are necessary before salvation is received.
 
Okay let's look at the New Testament. Two men went up into the temple to pray - a Pharisee and a tax collector. Luke 18:9-14 Jesus said that the tax collector was justified but the Pharisee was not. Since faith without works is dead, what works did the tax collector perform in order to be justified?
 
At the time of David's life, the acts of faith necessary for forgiveness were proscribed by the Law. But those acts of faith do not translate into the New Covenant, because Jesus is the one sacrifice that actually takes away sin from those who lived after Him, and those who lived before Him. Under the NC, all of the acts of faith that NT Scripture say "lead to" and/or "result in" receiving salvation are necessary before salvation is received.
Nonsense, Hebrews 11 is in the New Testament. It defines faith for New Testament believers by using examples of men and women of faith since the time of Abel, all the way through the Old Testament. You even quote from James 2, where he uses Abraham and Rahab as examples of persons justified by works and not by faith alone.
The "acts of faith necessary" did not change from the Old Testament or the Law to the New Testament or the New Covenant.
 
Nonsense, Hebrews 11 is in the New Testament. It defines faith for New Testament believers by using examples of men and women of faith since the time of Abel, all the way through the Old Testament. You even quote from James 2, where he uses Abraham and Rahab as examples of persons justified by works and not by faith alone.
The "acts of faith necessary" did not change from the Old Testament or the Law to the New Testament or the New Covenant.
Between the OT and the NT, many of the laws, requirements, etc. changed radically:
The priesthood changed
The dietary restrictions changed
The sacrificial system changed
Where worship must be done changed
The specific requirements of faith leading to salvation changed. Faith itself has always been necessary, but the specific actions that lead to or result in salvation did change.
 
Also what "acts of faith" did David perform - that "were proscribed by the Law", as you say?
In Psalm 51:16-17, David says, "For You do not delight in sacrifice, otherwise I would give it; You are not pleased with burnt offering."
"The sacrifices of God are a broken spirit; a broken and a contrite heart, O God, You will not despise."
Here we see the true manifestation of faith. David had it and so did the tax collector. No works - only a broken and repentant heart, which was true in the Old Testament and is still true in the New Testament.

So once again, what "acts of faith" did the tax collector perform to be justified, under the New Covenant?
 
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Then why did he still need to wash away his sins when Ananias talked to him?
Baptism never did and never will wash away sins. Our sins are washed away when we repent and believe in Jesus. Ananias apparently is confused. On the one hand, he called Saul "Brother Saul", a term, according to Jesus, used for those who do the will of His Father, who is in heaven Matthew 12:50 - which Saul was NOW doing. On the other hand, he thinks that Saul still has sins that need to be washed away - which couldn't be true if Saul was his spiritual brother. Also Ananias mistakenly thinks that baptism will be the means by which his sins (which were already washed away) will be washed away.
This was not the first time that a godly man, though sincere, made a mistake. Obviously, it still happens today.
 
Between the OT and the NT, many of the laws, requirements, etc. changed radically:
The priesthood changed
The dietary restrictions changed
The sacrificial system changed
Where worship must be done changed
The specific requirements of faith leading to salvation changed. Faith itself has always been necessary, but the specific actions that lead to or result in salvation did change.
You are changing the subject. David was already saved, so we're not talking about "specific requirements of faith leading to salvation here", are we? We're talking about the works (that you say are necessary) to show that he had faith to be forgiven of his sins with Bathsheba.
 
Baptism never did and never will wash away sins. Our sins are washed away when we repent and believe in Jesus.
That is your opinion based on incomplete references to Scripture.
John 3:5 says that rebirth requires both water and the Spirit.
Rom 6:1-4 says that we die to sin and are reborn by the Spirit in baptism.
Col 2:11-14 says that our sins are cut from us and we are reborn by the Spirit in baptism.
Gal 3:26-27 says that we are clothed with Christ and made children of God through baptism.
Eph 5:26-27 says that we are washed clean and made holy through washing of water by the Word (baptism).
1 Pet 3:21 says that baptism saves us by the giving of a clean conscience from the Spirit.
Ananias apparently is confused.
Ananias was speaking for God, so you are saying that God is the one who is confused.
On the one hand, he called Saul "Brother Saul", a term, according to Jesus, used for those who do the will of His Father, who is in heaven Matthew 12:50 - which Saul was NOW doing.
You are making an inference that Scripture does not. All of the Jews were "brothers" and "sisters" because they came from one family through Abraham.
On the other hand, he thinks that Saul still has sins that need to be washed away - which couldn't be true if Saul was his spiritual brother. Also Ananias mistakenly thinks that baptism will be the means by which his sins (which were already washed away) will be washed away.
Again, you are applying your false doctrine to twist what Scripture says. If Ananias, speaking for God, says that Saul was still in sin, then Saul was still in sin. He was NOT washed clean on the Road.
You are changing the subject. David was already saved, so we're not talking about "specific requirements of faith leading to salvation here", are we? We're talking about the works (that you say are necessary) to show that he had faith to be forgiven of his sins with Bathsheba.
Once salvation is received (through repentance, confession of Jesus as Lord, and baptism), the requirement of faith is to continue to walk in the Light (1 John 1:7). Straying from the Light into UNREPENTANT sin leads to condemnation (James 5:19-20).
 
I never said God was confused. Those are your words and your accusation. Peter also was speaking for and acting on behalf of God, but he avoided associating with Gentiles, when other Jews came from James, afraid of what they would think, acting hypocritically in Galatians 2:11-14. So going by your faulty reasoning, God actually was the hypocrite, since Peter spoke for and acted on behalf of God?

No, I'm stating a fact, not making an inference. Were the Jewish scribes, Pharisees, and Sadducees Jesus' brothers? At one point, Jesus said that the devil was their father, so were ALL the Jews brothers and sisters. Of course not.

So Peter, speaking for and acting on behalf of God, made the wrong decision, and hypocritically sinned by avoiding the Gentiles.
But you say Ananias, speaking for God, couldn't possibly be mistaken. Really? When did he become infallible? Does speaking for God make a person infallible? Obviously not.
Did I ever say that God was confused? No, that's your snarky accusation in response to my posing a reasonable explanation.
Again, your reasoning is both faulty and snarky.

Now you're applying New Testament teaching on faith to David. I thought you said he had different requirements in the Old Covenant to show that he had faith to be forgiven of his sin with Bathsheba. What are those Old Covenant requirements?

Also you still haven't said what works the tax collector performed to show that he had faith to be justified? Luke 18:9-14
 
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