Doug Brents
Well-known member
Ahh, so Eph 4:5-6 are no Scripture, according to Fred?False.
There is not "only one" baptism in the NT Church.
John, who was a member of the NT Church, still had a "baptism" to undergo - his death.
No, Paul says clearly that:
"There is one body and one Spirit, just as you also were called in one hope of your calling; 5 one Lord, one faith, one baptism, 6 one God and Father of all who is over all and through all and in all."
There are other baptisms mentioned, but none of them are the one that brings us into communion with God.
Then if you agree that water must be a part of the baptism that brings us into communion with God, and the Holy Spirit participates in that baptism by removing our sin and uniting us with Jesus' death and resurrection (Rom 6:1-4, Col 2:11-14, Acts 2:38), then why are you arguing? "Baptism with the Holy Spirit" as you call it occurs during water baptism.I never denied that. The substance is the baptism with the Holy Spirit, water is the picture.
The Gentiles were speaking in tongues and worshiping God, but they did not yet have the indwelling of the Spirit. They had miraculous gifts, sure. But that is not a sign of salvation.Proven wrong because the Gentiles were worshiping in the Spirit before their water baptism (Acts 10:46).
They were going to be, not were at that time. They were not yet in the Church because they had not yet been baptized into the Church (Gal 3:26-27, Rom 6:3, John 3:5).Correct, they were equal "in the church". Since they were in the church demonstrates they were already saved before their water baptism.
No, there are many signs of obedience that are stated to come after/flow out of having been saved. But there are three actions that Scripture says lead to being saved:Needed for obedience after salvation, not before salvation.
Repentance - Acts 2:38, 3:19
Confession of Jesus as Lord - Rom 6:9-10
Baptism - Acts 2:38, Mark 16:16, Col 2:11-14, Rom 6:1-4
These are all stated to LEAD TO salvation.
Heb 6:4-6 says that it is absolutely possible for someone to receive the Holy Spirit and then lose their salvation. This is backed up by 2 Pet 2:20.You are saying one can receive the Holy Spirit and be lost.
It is certainly possible to receive the Holy Spirit and lose Him again due to unrepentant sin.This contradicts the Bible in many places (John 14:17; 1 John 3:24; 4:13. etc.)
This only occurred one time (with Cornelius), and again is not a sign of his redemption. As with every other person who has every heard the Gospel preached, their sins are washed away upon being buried with Christ in (as we have already established) water baptism (Rom 6:1-4). Christ is the author of salvation to those who obey Him, not to those who believe (have mental assent) in Him (Heb 5:9).By believing what they preached one was baptized with thr Holy Spirit. He comes as a result of their preaching and the acceptance of it by those who embrace it.
In the "Church age" there is no difference between the Jew and the Gentile. Every command to the Jews is applicable to the Gentiles, and equally those to the Gentiles are applicable to the Jews. There is only one NT standard of righteousness and salvation.Applies only to the Jews of that time period (cf. Acts 2:38).
Not one Gentiles is ever told to be baptized for the forgiveness of sins and to receive the Holy Spirit. Not one in the Church age.
Water baptism is not a picture of what occurred when we entered the NT Church. It is the point at which we entered the Church (Gal 3:26-27).Which pictures the baptism with the Holy Spirit which all have upon entering the NT Church.
No, you have to conflate the miraculous working of the Holy Spirit with the indwelling of the Holy Spirit to confuse the issue as you have.Again, you have to deny the obvious to say the above when it comes to Corenlius and the other Gentiles with him,