we can forgive you for misunderstanding scripture. We'll try to get you on track.
You shall worship the Lord you God only.
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Micaiah
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Read the Holy Bible more frequently:
“Take heed unto thyself, and unto the doctrine; continue in them: for in doing this thou shalt both save thyself, and them that hear thee.” (1 Timothy 4:16, KJV)
Get to it.
I will continue to read it and share truth with people. thanks. I can help teach you too.
Micaiah
Active member
First:
Get rid of all of the extra biblical leaven and you will be back on track.
Baby steps again…
done. Now you repent and acknowledge the deity of Christ to which scriptures gives abundant testimony.
Richard
Active member
If you are trying to understand the theophonic appearances of God in the O.T, in light of John 1:18, you need to understand the meaning of the word John uses.
In verse 18, John says,
If John is arguing from the first definition, this needs to be understood in the light of pragmatic Old Testament examples. We know from the many examples of theophonic manifestations in the Old Testament that God has repeatedly presented himself to man in a number of ways. At times, God availed himself only to man’s auditory senses. He spoke to Adam, to Cain, to Noah, to the Hebrew patriarchs, to Moses, to the prophets, and to others. Sometimes he visited himself upon man in the form of dreams or visions as to the prophet Isaiah in Isaiah chapter six. Other times, he appears as objects such as the cloud or the pillar of fire that went before Israel in the wilderness. Still, there are other times when he visited man in human form. There are some eight accounts of this type of theophany found in the Old Testament.
The second word is “ἑώρακεν”. If “ἑώρακεν” is to be understood as an intellectual limitation, this would seem to fit better with the closing statement of this prologue. “He has explained him.” The Greek word “ἐξηγήσατο” means to set forth in detail, to set forth in language, to make known or to reveal (George V. Wagram’s Analytical Greek Lexicon of the New Testament, 1983). This is the etymology of our word ‘exegete’. In other words,
hermeneutics stackexchange
In verse 18, John says,
There are two words that need to be addressed in this statement by John. The first is the word “ἑώρακεν” that is translated here as "seen" in most of the English translations. The word is third person singular of “ὁράω” which, according to Thayer, has three basic definitions. First, it means to see with the eyes. Secondly, it means to see with the mind, to know, to perceive. Thirdly, it means to become acquainted with through pragmatic experience (The 1981 New Thayer’s Greek English Lexicon, p 451).
If John is arguing from the first definition, this needs to be understood in the light of pragmatic Old Testament examples. We know from the many examples of theophonic manifestations in the Old Testament that God has repeatedly presented himself to man in a number of ways. At times, God availed himself only to man’s auditory senses. He spoke to Adam, to Cain, to Noah, to the Hebrew patriarchs, to Moses, to the prophets, and to others. Sometimes he visited himself upon man in the form of dreams or visions as to the prophet Isaiah in Isaiah chapter six. Other times, he appears as objects such as the cloud or the pillar of fire that went before Israel in the wilderness. Still, there are other times when he visited man in human form. There are some eight accounts of this type of theophany found in the Old Testament.
The second word is “ἑώρακεν”. If “ἑώρακεν” is to be understood as an intellectual limitation, this would seem to fit better with the closing statement of this prologue. “He has explained him.” The Greek word “ἐξηγήσατο” means to set forth in detail, to set forth in language, to make known or to reveal (George V. Wagram’s Analytical Greek Lexicon of the New Testament, 1983). This is the etymology of our word ‘exegete’. In other words,
The Logos presents God to the mind of man through the medium of human language in such a way that man is now able to understand something of the nature and character of God that he could never know from his observation of the natural world. Only the one who came out of the very presence of God could have done this.
hermeneutics stackexchange
Micaiah
Active member
Christ definitely has a divine nature:
“Whereby are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust.” (2 Peter 1:4, KJV)
What exactly that means will be clear when we finally see him in that day.
“For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known.” (1 Corinthians 13:12, KJV)
Certainly we shall be in the Son of God who is of the Godhead. It shall be interesting to eventually find what that entails.
Also, can you find a single verse that says, "Jesus is not God?"
Jesus is my Lord and Savior, sent to me from His God and my God, the Father of all, and to this day HE advocates between His God and Father, and me. When HE walked the earth, He was a man, tempted in all ways as other men, but HE didn't give in to the Temptation and sin. There are those who imply that this was no big deal for Him, because they preach that HE wasn't a man, but God, who just looked like a man. And so when HE was tempted, HE just kicked in some God power no other human has ever had access to, and in this way HE overcame. And that since HE was His own God, raised Himself from the death, and then gave Himself all the Glory and power for simply "being God". "Take Heed" of these "Many" my friend, not to be deceived by their seductive traditions and philosophies. Study for yourself in obedience/faith.
I advocate that men believe and follow the commands and instructions of this Lord's Christ "of the Bible", as dictated in the Holy Scriptures. Including, but not limited to, the many warnings about religious men of this world God placed us in, "who call Jesus Lord, Lord, who "come in His Name", who "cast out demons in His Name", but have rejected much of the commandments, judgments and Words of God that the Jesus "of the bible" told us to "live by".
The following is just a few Inspired Scriptures, some of which as spoken by Jesus Himself, that tells men about His Father, who HE calls, "The One True God". As you will see, Jesus knew the difference between Himself, and His Father who HE said was greater than HE.
Clearly Jesus was not His own God, contrary to this world's "many" who call Him Lord, Lord.
You asked for verses that said Jesus wasn't God.
Matt. 19: 17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou "me" good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.
John 14: 28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto "the Father": for "my Father" is greater than I.
Psalms 45: 6 Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: "the sceptre" of thy kingdom (Jesus) is a right sceptre. 7 Thou (The Scepter of God's Kingdom, Jesus) lovest righteousness, and hatest wickedness: therefore (Because of this) God, "thy" ((The Scepter of God's Kingdom, Jesus') God, hath anointed thee (Jesus) with the oil of gladness above thy fellows. (All other men born of a woman)
1 John 2: 1 My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have "an advocate" with "the Father", "Jesus Christ" the righteous: (The Sceptor of His Father's Kingdom)
1. Jesus as man - many and us held that belief maybe before your church existed.
2. One God - many and us held that belief maybe before the existence of your church.
3. What you have to prove here is just a single verse that says, "Jesus is not God." And I did not see the exact words from your quoted verses.
My church existed before Abraham.
Thanks for the spirit filled reply and examination of the Scriptures I posted at your request.
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