God gave Moses the OT law but since it was given to Moses it is therefore sometimes referred to as the "law of Moses" (Dan 9:13; Mal 4:4; Lk 24:44; etc).
Hence the OT law of God, the law of Moses or whatever you choose to call it has nothing to do with NT Christianity for the 3 reasons I gave in my last post. It was never in God's purpose this OT law would last but that there would be a change in law. For if the OT law could justufy then there would be no need for Christ's sacrifice and the NT gospel, Heb 10.
Both the OT and NT work on the principle of delegated authority, that is, one obeys authority delegated from God because going against God's delegated authority is sin. In Matthew and Luke, they speak about Christ taking Peter and other disciples with Him to a high mountain where Christ transfigured before them. Peter said
let us make here three tabernacles; one for thee, and one for Moses, and one for Elias. Luke said Peter did not understand what he was asking, he was trying to put Christ on the same level with Moses and Elias. Then a voice from above says to Peter "
This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him." Moses represents the law of Moses and Elias represents the OT prophets and Peter was told to
listen to Christ for Christ is the only one given ALL power, ALL authority to delegate NT beleifs and practices.....not Moses nor the prophets.
Christ gave authority to 12 of His disciples whom He made Apostles and they had delegated authority from heaven/God for they could only bind and loose on earth what has already been bound and loosed IN HEAVEN. Therefore Moses and the prophets are
NOT delegated authority for NT Christians. Hence it is sinful to go against NT delegated authority that Christ and His apostles have delegated and go back to the OT law. Paul makes it clear in Rom 7 it is sinful for a Christian to go back to the OT law.
Those Jews who lived under the OT would listen to Moses and the Prophets (Lk 16:29,31) but NT Christians listen to Christ. For Christians to go back to the OT is sin in following the wrong delegated authority in listening to Moses and the Prophets instead of listening to Christ. Again, Christ, not Moses and the Prophets, NOR DAVID delegates NT beliefs, practices, doctrines.
How can a man be justified apart from "Loving God with all your heart, and Love thy neighbor as thyself?"
But sadly, no one of this world's religions, wants to answer the question.
The OT law required animal sacrifices in order for sin to be forgiven. But since the blood of bulls and goats could not give complete, full remission of sins then they had to begiven on a yearly basis. Those sacrifices simply rolled their sins ahead one year henc their sins were always before them. It took the blood of Christ to completely take away those sins. Lk 1. John's parents who lived under that OT law are said to be "blameless" not because they kept the OT law perfectly sinles but because they kepth those OT sacrifices and continued tohave their sins forgiven year by year, hence they were seen as righteous by God having
walked in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord meaning they kept those sacrifices.
Rom. 2:
13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
Jesus Himself said "
17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.
When asked "which Commandments", did Jesus speak to the sacrificial Laws or God's instruction in righteousness?
What if Jesus and Paul and Peter and Moses, and Isaiah and the Holy One of Israel are telling the truth. And it's this world's religions who come in Christ's Name that Jesus warned us about, who are promoting falsehoods?
Certainly something to consider.
Rom 2:
For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
(For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
The context of Rom 1 is Paul proving the Gentile had sinned and Rom 2 prove the Jew had sinned hence Paul concludes all (Gentile and Jew) are under sin. THose under sin as Gentile and Jew are in need of justification.
Paul spends the first half or Rom 3 telling us whay does NOT justify and that being the OT law. He spends the last half telling us what can justify the sinning Gentile and Jew that being faith. The OT law was given to the Jew and not the Gentile, hence having that law was a big adavantage to the Jew for it told the Jew where man came from (Gen 1) and it told the Jew what was is sinful (Rom 7:7). The Gentile had no such advantage yet the Gentile was still accountable to God as the Jew. Even though the Jew had the advantage of having the OT law it could not justify them leaving them unjustified as the Jew (Rom 3:9) that OT law left the Jew still under sin. So the OT law is NOT the solution for being under sin for that OT law required perfect flawless sinless law keeping to be justified by it which the Jew could not do no matter how hard they tried.
Rom 3:21
But now apart from the law a righteousness of God hath been manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
Here Paul is saying apart from the OT law and its required flawless law keeping to be justified there is
NOW, (as opposed to back then under the OT) a way for both Gentile and Jew to be justified and that is by faith. Hence Paul says "
Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law." Paul makes a clear distinction between being justified by faith NOW
from the deeds of the law, that is, from the deeds of perfect, sinless law keeping that OT required to be justified by it.
Hence being a doer of the OT law in working to keep all of it sinlessly perfect will not justify. Hence the context of Rom 2:13 is this:
Paul is proving the Jews are sinners having already proven the Gentiles are sinners in Rom 1. In proving the Jews are sinners Paul is proving the Jew sinned for the Jew did not keep the OT law given them sinlessly perfect therefore could they not be justified by that OT law.
Rom 2:12
For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
The "law" here refers to the OT law and the Gentiles were not given the OT law hence those who "sinned without the law" refers to the Gentiles. The Gentiles did not have the OT law and so they perished without having that law. Those Gentiles were not under the OT law but under a different law and they did not keep that law hence they perished.
'as many as have sinned in the law" refers to the Jews to whom the OT law was given. Those the Jews did possess that OT law it did not provide them protection from condemnation for that OT law required the Jew to keep ALL of it perfectly sinless which they could not do leaving them just as condemned and unjustified as the Gentile. (Rom 3:9)
Rom 2:13
(For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
The Jews heard the OT law that was given them but they put so much stress on hearing the law and having knowledge of the law they did not do the law thereby neglecting to do the law left them unjustified.
Paul here is not saying a doer of the law is one that keeps it perfectly sinless thereby justified by flawless law keeping.
Rom 3:20 -
Therefore by the deeds (flawless, perfect sinless law keeping) of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: because no Jew could keep that OT law perfectly sinless none were justified. Hence the Jews just hearing the OT law but since they did not have a faithful obedience to it left them unjustified,
But a doer of the law refers to one who has a faithful obedience (not a perfect obedience) to it as John's parents therefore they were blameless and God saw them as righteous.
Hence a doer of the law, whether it be the Jew that lived under the OT or a person living under the NT law today, are NOT justified just by hearing apart from a faithful obdience to it. Nor can they be justified by trying to keep the law sinlessly perfect but a simple faithful obdience is all God requires to justify one.