You are wrong because 1 Corinthians 12:13 refers to being baptized with the Holy Spirit.
This has been dealt with in another thread I started. You make the CLAIM it refers to baptism with the HS but never provide proof
This is you adding your religious bias to the text. You have no problem with Spirit = Spirit but your bias cannot have water = water so you must add your bias to the text. Likewise in Acts 10 you want the baptism with the HS as the means of Corenelius' salvation but not the accompanying tongues.
Your bias forces you to deny the OT connection that Jesus spoke of and one in which Nicodemus (being a Pharisee) would have known about.
Christian baptism wasn't even instituted yet, but Christ expected Nicodemus to know what He was talking about (John 3:10).
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Jesus answered and said unto him, Art thou a master of Israel, and knowest not these things?"
Nicodemus should have understood the basic things Christ was talking about because they were foreshawdowed - prophesied about in the OT as in Eze 18:30-31; Eze 36:25 which are referencing this new birth;
Then will I sprinkle clean water upon you, and ye shall be clean: from all your filthiness, and from all your idols, will I cleanse you.
A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh.
And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them.
Eze 18 and 36 are prophesies of this new birth the Messiah would bring when He came to earth for they did not have such things under that OT law as "clean from all your filthiness" nor "I will cleanse you" (forgiveness of sins, complete justification, Heb 10:1-4) nor did they have 'give you a new spirit' referring to regeneration. Hence Nicodemus (all Pharisees) should have had understanding of Christ words if they understood the OT law as they claimed to have understood. But we know from Rom 3 they did not have a correct understanding of the OT law. Hence not understanding Christ's words was their own fault.
Also note
when Christ came with this new birth not ever Jew was universally, unconditionally given a new heart and spirit, In Acts 2 we have the first recorded gospel sermon where only those Jews who heard those saving gospel words and only those Jews that obeyed those words by being water baptized for the remission of sins received a new heart and spirit. Peter went on to tell the Jews in v40 to "
save yourselves". "Save yourselves" is equvalent to "make yourselves" a new heart and spirit per Exe 18:30-31. They could not save themselves by themselves, they could not make themselves a new heart and spirit by themselves but by being obedient to the gospel given to them by God and obeying it by being water baptized for remission of sin then they would be born again. Their being born again involved them
making themselves a new heart and spirit:
Jn 3 -------born of water and of the spirit >>>>>>>>>>>> enter the kingdom
Mt 7--------do the will of the Fahter >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> enter the kingdom
Since there is one way to be saved/enter the kingdom. then salvatiom involves
doing the will of God and there is the obvious connection between being born of water and spirit and DOING thew will of GOd. When one submits to water baptism as commanded by God (Acts 10:47-48) then God removes their sins and one is in that sense saving themselves, making themselves a new heart and spirit. Again this involves DOING the will of God and baptism with the HS has nothing with man doing the will of God.
David prophesied that God would give the hethren nation to Christ as a inheritence (Psa 2:8) Yet in Acts 10 we have the first Gentile converts and not all Gentiles were universally unconditionally given a new heart and spirit. Only those who heard those saving words from Peter (Acts 11:14) and obeyed them by being water baptized were given a new heart and spirit.
Baptism with the HS had no part in any of this at all, yet you are trying to add it to the context of Acts 10. Baptism with the HS has nothing to do with 'make yourselves" a new heart or spirit or "save yourselves" for this involves being obedient to God's command to be water baptized for remission of sins. Baptism with the HS is not doing the will of God per Mt 7:21. This is why there is NOTHING in the context of Acts 10 or 11 that makes baptism with the HS part of the personal salvation of Cornelius.
Again, the immediate context of Jn 3 tells us that water in Jn 3:5 refers to water baptism of v23 and water of v23 means literal water as it does in v5.
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And John also was baptizing in Aenon near to Salim, because there was much water there: and they came, and were baptized." It does NOT say theire was much SPIRIT there. Again, you import the content of a remote text into John 3 that have nothing to do with the literal water of Jn 3 to try and make water of Jn 3 figurative. You claims are exegetically flawed.
The Pharisees rejected John's baptism (Lk 7:30) and thier rejection of John's baptism was rejection of God. And since rejection of John's baptism is rejection of God then what can be said of rejection of Christ's water baptism? It's rejection of God. Their rejection of John's water baptism was rejection of God which led to their ultimate rejection by God (Rom 11). There are those today that reject "born of water" as those Pharisees in their rejection of John's water baptism.
