Tradition Hebrew Onlyist assertion. There is a specific word for Virgin in Hebrew. The same exists in Greek. If the author of the Hebrew text was seeking to convey the thought of "Virgin" then he would have used it. The importance of using "Betulah/Betulim" can not be understated. Your commentaries are not going to help you with this.
In the context of "line by line and precept by precept. You can't avoid the importance of Isa 7:14. As such, I am not going to entertain your claim that Isa 7:14 isn't essential and thusly ignore the remainder of your false claims.
We have a simple solution. The Greek OT is true and Luke quoted/referenced the LXX from Isa 7:14.
Luk 1:27 To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name was Mary. KJV
παρθένος / בְּתוּלִים
Leviticus 21:13
Lev 21:13 And he shall take a wife in her virginity.
Now. Realize I have the advantage here. I know the subject. I have studied it before and defended my claims. You're quoting from commentaries. I don't believe you really know it yourself.
Let's bring you back down to reality-
The Betulah vs. Almah Argument in Isaiah 7:14
1. False Assumption-Betulah is the Only Word for "Virgin"
Your assertion that "betulah" (בְּתוּלָה) is the only Hebrew word for a virgin is incorrect. While בְּתוּלָה (betulah) is often translated as “virgin,” it does not always mean a sexually pure woman. It can refer to a young woman, whether married or not, and sometimes even metaphorically to cities (e.g., Isaiah 23:12,
“O virgin daughter of Sidon”).
Joel 1:8:
"Lament like a betulah girded with sackcloth for the husband of her youth." (A betulah here has a husband, which contradicts the claim that the term exclusively means a virgin.)
Deuteronomy 22:17:
"And, lo, he hath given occasions of speech against her, saying, I found not thy daughter a betulim." (Here, betulim—the plural form—means evidence of virginity, but the fact that a qualifier is needed shows that betulah alone does not always mean a virgin.)
The biblical word choice demands context to clarify meaning. The Greek
παρθένος (parthenos), as used in the Septuagint (LXX) for Isaiah 7:14, unambiguously means a virgin, reinforcing that almah (עַלְמָה) in Isaiah 7:14 was understood as "virgin" by ancient Jewish translators.
2. The LXX as a Reliable Witness to Pre-Christian Jewish Interpretation
The Greek Septuagint (LXX) was translated by Jewish scholars
before the rise of Christianity, and they rendered
almah in Isaiah 7:14 as
παρθένος (parthenos, virgin). This proves that before any Christian influence, Jewish interpreters understood Isaiah 7:14 to refer to a virgin birth.
Additionally, Matthew 1:23 quotes Isaiah 7:14 using παρθένος, demonstrating that the Gospel authors followed the Jewish Septuagint reading rather than post-Christian rabbinic reinterpretations.
3. The Meaning of "Almah" (עַלְמָה) in the Hebrew Bible
Almah appears seven times in the Hebrew Bible and never refers to a non-virgin:
Genesis 24:43 (Rebekah, a virgin)
Exodus 2:8 (Miriam, a young girl)
Proverbs 30:19 (mysterious nature of a man with an almah—suggesting purity)
Song of Solomon 1:3, 6:8 (almah in parallel with chaste women)
If Isaiah had meant a young woman who was not a virgin, the word
na'arah (נַעֲרָה) would have been a better choice. However, he deliberately used almah, a term consistently associated with purity.
4. Your flawed argument re Luke 1:27
You assert that Luke quoted the LXX of Isaiah 7:14, implying that it validates the Greek OT’s superiority over the Hebrew text.
However, Luke was writing in Greek, and
parthenos (παρθένος) was the natural word for a virgin. This is not merely a quotation of the LXX but an affirmation that Mary was a virgin in fulfillment of prophecy.
The LXX preserves a pre-Christian Jewish understanding of Isaiah 7:14 as a miraculous virgin birth,
contrary to later Jewish objections.
5. Your misrepresentation of Leviticus 21:13 (Betulah in a Legal Context)
Leviticus 21:13 states: "And he shall take a wife in her betulim (virginity).”
The plural betulim (בְּתוּלִים) refers to virginity as a state, whereas betulah (בְּתוּלָה) as a singular noun does not always mean an untouched virgin.
This verse does not disprove Isaiah’s use of almah in 7:14, nor does it support the argument that betulah is required for a virgin reference.
6. Your Arrogant Dismissal of Commentaries Shows Intellectual Dishonesty
You dismiss scholarship and
assumes authority over the discussion, claiming you "know the subject" while dismissing opposing views as relying on "commentaries."
However, this issue has been
debated for centuries, with Jewish and Christian scholars recognizing the LXX’s pre-Christian rendering as authoritative.
Simply claiming
"I have studied this" does not replace historical, textual, and linguistic analysis.
Conclusion-Your Argument is Unfounded
Betulah is not the only Hebrew word for virgin, and in some cases, it does not even mean a virgin.
Almah is never used for a non-virgin in the Hebrew Bible, making it the appropriate term for Isaiah 7:14.
The Jewish Septuagint, predating Christianity,
translates almah as "parthenos" (virgin), confirming that ancient Jews saw Isaiah 7:14 as a prophecy of a virgin birth.
Luke does not need to "quote" the LXX to use the same word; Greek "parthenos" was the best term for a virgin.
Dismissing scholarship in favor of personal claims is not a valid argument.
Luk 1:27 To a betulah (virgin) given in erusin (betrothal, engagement) to an ish from the Beis Dovid named Yosef [ben Dovid], and the shem of the almah was Miryam.
Anything you want to add?
J.
