I cannot understand your quesiton.
GINOLJC, to all.
Sure, let 101G make it plain for you. the "Lord" in Psalms 110:1 is the same "Lord" in Psalms 110:5. (who sit at his, (the LORD'S), right). who is YHWH by title. let 101G make it Clear. using the Mickelson's Enhanced Strong's Dictionaries of the Greek and Hebrew Testaments, "Lord" in verse 1
H113 אָדוֹן 'adown (aw-done') n-m.
אָדֹן 'adon (aw-done') [shortened]
1. sovereign (i.e. controller, human or divine).
2. lord.
{also used as a prefix for names}
[from an unused root (meaning to rule)]
KJV: lord,
master, owner.
Compare: H136
PLEASE NOTE: "Lord" here is
H113. now the same "Lord" (at the right), in verse 5,
Psalms 110:5 "The
Lord at thy right hand shall strike through kings in the day of his wrath." the "Lord" here is
H136 אֲדֹנָי 'Adonay (ad-o-noy') n-m.
1. (meaning) Lord (used as a proper name of God only).
2. (person) Adonai, The Lord God of Israel (which is actually “Yahweh God of Israel” - see Exodus 5:1 and 120 other occurrences).
[am emphatic form of H113]
KJV: (my) Lord.
Root(s): H113
the Lord Here is ......if you note definition #2, is the PERSON, the PERSON, the PERSON,
(person) Adonai, The Lord God of Israel (which is actually “Yahweh God of Israel” who is the "LORD" in verse 1.
but is not the "LORD" all caps in verse 1 the PERSON God there, YHWH? yes, so can you tell us HOW the "Lord", and the "LORD" is the same one PERSON?
remember the "Lord" in verse 5 is the
emphatic form of H113 "My Lord" in verse 1.
and the term "emphatic" means, showing or giving emphasis;
expressing something forcibly and clearly:
so clearly and forcibly, the Lord in verse 1 the same person who is the Lord in verse 5, who it the same "LORD" , all caps in verse 1..... (smile).
so 101G is asking, "is the "PERSON" Lord here in Psalms 110:1 & 5 the same one Person who is "LORD" all caps in verse 1. your answer please.
101G.