The Doctrine of Divine Simplicity

You provide no proof for your claim

There are no noted lexicons which teach your henotheism

and you still have not addressed this

Jesus is stated to be the one lord, so is the father not lord?

There are no verses in any standard translation which calls Christ small "g" god

Satan not the word is referred to in 2cor 4:4

The lexicons do not support your claim of the word being a god

neither answering my question or posting a recognized lexicon giving a meaning of a god

BTW how many gods do you believe in?
Listen TomL.--- In EVERY Lexicon on earth at John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4--The true God is called Ton Theon=God--Both the Word and satan are called Theos=god when in the same paragraph with Ton Theon. Its why they are called different words. One ends in a g like character, one ends in a v like character--Tell us all then why in trinity translations the same exact word given to the Word and to satan are translated different. Since you speak on this subject you must know why? And why the true God is called a different word at both spots-Please explain these truths.
Would not the Word be given the same Greek word as the true God at John 1:1 if the Word were God?
 
How do you account for the fact Jesus is called the one lord?
If that is absolute truth, then why at Psalm 110:1 does your bible have--The LORD said to my Lord? Or is there alternate meaning to what you believe. Because in verse 5 at 1 Cor 8-Paul says there are many Lords.
 
please no quote walls from corrupt text.

unreadable. explain your point...

saying it kindly. no kjv please.
"All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for [c]instruction in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work."
2 Timothy 3:16


"But without faith it is impossible to please Him, for he who comes to God must believe that He is, and that He is a rewarder of those who diligently seek Him." - Hebrews 11:6

The only corruption is the sin of unbelief.
 
If that is absolute truth, then why at Psalm 110:1 does your bible have--The LORD said to my Lord? Or is there alternate meaning to what you believe. Because in verse 5 at 1 Cor 8-Paul says there are many Lords.
Not for Christians

If one cannot claim based on

1 Corinthians 8:6 (KJV 1900) — 6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.

That Christ alone is lord then one cannot claim the father alone is God
 
Listen TomL.--- In EVERY Lexicon on earth at John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4--The true God is called Ton Theon=God--Both the Word and satan are called Theos=god when in the same paragraph with Ton Theon. Its why they are called different words. One ends in a g like character, one ends in a v like character--Tell us all then why in trinity translations the same exact word given to the Word and to satan are translated different. Since you speak on this subject you must know why? And why the true God is called a different word at both spots-Please explain these truths.
Would not the Word be given the same Greek word as the true God at John 1:1 if the Word were God?
You still have not quoted a single lexicon. You conflate your interpretation of the lexicons with what the lexicons themselves state

Jesus is Ton Theon at Tit 2:13, 2Pe 1:1,

And articularly noted at John 20:28

And as for your question No for an another article would make Jesus the Father
 
Loving more than one being is fine. Christ is a Being. God is a lovely gorgeous being and He is God. His spirit is a being... each of His souls will be restored to Him

all sweet loving beings in their deity.

God remains God.

First commandment of course.
How is that related to what I stated

There are no noted lexicons which teach your henotheism

and you still have not addressed this

Jesus is stated to be the one lord, so is the father not lord?

There are no verses in any standard translation which calls Christ small "g" god

Satan not the word is referred to in 2cor 4:4

The lexicons do not support your claim of the word being a god

neither answering my question or posting a recognized lexicon giving a meaning of a god

BTW how many gods do you believe in?

Are you also denying Jesus is God?

How many deities do you believe in?
 
Not for Christians

If one cannot claim based on

1 Corinthians 8:6 (KJV 1900) — 6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.

That Christ alone is lord then one cannot claim the father alone is God
You believe the one Lord part but outright refuse to believe One God = the Father.
 
You still have not quoted a single lexicon. You conflate your interpretation of the lexicons with what the lexicons themselves state

Jesus is Ton Theon at Tit 2:13, 2Pe 1:1,

And articularly noted at John 20:28

And as for your question No for an another article would make Jesus the Father
The in parenthesis belongs at Both Peter and Titus. Its not calling Jesus God.
Thomas would be calling Jesus and Paul liars( John 17:3, 1 Cor 8:6) if its how you think. Both Jesus and Paul teach only the Father is God.
Your translations are erred to confuse those using them.
 
The in parenthesis belongs at Both Peter and Titus. Its not calling Jesus God.
Thomas would be calling Jesus and Paul liars( John 17:3, 1 Cor 8:6) if its how you think. Both Jesus and Paul teach only the Father is God.
Your translations are erred to confuse those using them.
sorry, noted Greek scholars disagree with you

examples

THIS INTERPRETATION HAS THE SUPPORT OF A.T. ROBINSON, P.W. SCHMIEDEL, MOULTON, BLASS DEBRUNNER, DANA AND MANTEY, BRUCE METZGER, REYMOND ETC
The Granville Sharp Rule states, “When the copulative kai connects two nouns of the same case, [viz. nouns (either substantive or adjective, or participles) of personal description, respecting office, dignity, affinity, or connexion, and attributes, properties, or qualities, good or ill], if the article ho, or any of its cases, precedes the first of the said nouns or participles, and is not repeated before the second noun or participle, the latter always relates to the same person that is expressed or described by the first noun orparticiple” (Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article, 3).In simpler terms, the Granville Sharp Rule says that when two singular common nouns are used to describe a person, and those two nouns are joined by an additive conjunction, and the definite article precedes the first noun but not the second, then both nouns refer to the same person. This principle of semantics holds true in all languages. For example, consider this sentence:We met with the owner and the curator of the museum, Mr. Holton.In the preceding sentence, the definite article the is used twice, before both owner and curator. The curator is obviously Mr. Holton, but the owner could be a different person. Did we meet with one or two people? Is Mr. Holton the owner of the museum as well as the curator? The grammatical construction leaves the question open. However, the following sentence removes the ambiguity:We met with the owner and curator of the museum, Mr. Holton.In the second example, the definite article the is only used once, before the first noun. This means that the two nouns, joined by and, are both in apposition to the name of the person. In other words, Mr. Holton is both owner and curator. The Granville Sharp Rule makes it clear that we are referring to the same individual.Two of the New Testament verses associated with the Granville Sharp Rule are Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1. The KJV translates Titus 2:13 as, “Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of thegreat God and our Saviour Jesus Christ.” In the original Greek, the words for “God” and “Savior” are joined by kai, and the definite article ho is only used once, preceding “God”; according to the GranvilleSharp Rule, both God and Savior must refer to the same person, namely, Jesus Christ. The NASB 1977 renders the verse more literally: “Looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus.”Similarly, 2 Peter 1:1 refers to “our God and Savior Jesus Christ.” Following Granville Sharp’s rule, Jesus Christ is clearly identified as both “God” and “Savior,” another example of the Bible’s teaching of the deity of Christ. The grammatical construction of the Greek makes it plain: definite article + singular noun + copulative conjunction + singular noun = the same person.Though the Granville Sharp Rule may seem arcane, the concept has an important impact regarding Bible translation and our understanding of the nature of Christ. The New Testament passages where thisrule applies highlight the deity of Jesus Christ. He is more than the Messiah; He is God.Recommended Resource: How Biblical Languages Work: A Student’s Guide to Learning Hebrew & Greek by Peter Silzer & Thomas Finley

and you have already noted that calling Jesus the one lord does not stop the father from also being lord. So why would calling the Father the one god prevent Christ from also being God
 
You believe the one Lord part but outright refuse to believe One God = the Father.
Um you believe the one God part and deny the one lord part

Contrary to what you claim however I believe the father is the one god and Christ is the one god and the Spirit is the one God
 
How is that related to what I stated



Are you also denying Jesus is God?

How many deities do you believe in?
thee nature is used to refer to growing things...
and I've said this nature here is not His nature..

we are not in His nature here

His dibs and daughters will be in our religions nature which is His... not this ugly one.
 
thee nature is used to refer to growing things...
and I've said this nature here is not His nature..

we are not in His nature here

His dibs and daughters will be in our religions nature which is His... not this ugly one.
How is that related to what I stated
 
How is that related to what I stated
being in His Nature does not mean one is God.
All the sons will rule with Christ, because instead of this flesh nature
they will be in their Original Eden nature, which is His Nature.

Our nature in paradise is the birthright from Him, and as such, is our deity..
which is why the resurrection body is the glorified body and His Temple...
the nature of Him which we lost after the fall because of Adam.
Being in His nature does not make one God.

We are currently in the evil realm nature = this body.
 
thee nature is used to refer to growing things...
and I've said this nature here is not His nature..

we are not in His nature here

His dibs and daughters will be in our religions nature which is His... not this ugly one.
sons and daughters
 
IEUE

Those hebrew letters read right to left mean
He who gives breathing in the transliteration from Hebrew.


He Gives Us Life = breathing...
How pretty is that..

and not, not meant is these flesh bodies
but as Souls, in our Eden paradise,
when we are saved from this dungeon earth
and restored to our Original body
He made for us
before the fall...
 
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