praise_yeshua
Well-known member
The Apostles wrote God's name in the New Testament as Θεὸς. Are you happy about that?
As is also found throughout the LXX.
The Apostles wrote God's name in the New Testament as Θεὸς. Are you happy about that?
@praise_yeshua I have this saved from the good old days when Bowman and Ray were on the language forum with robr and elpis the best of the unitarians in those days. I have a much longer version of this old thread. Ray and I use to talk allot offline on the phone and via email until he went to go be with his Lord and God Jesus Christ.
Originally Posted by Elpis
Hi Robr,
I have read and reread the relevant passage in “Putting Jesus in his place” (in fact I have now ordered the book), and can only conclude that you are correct in maintaining that Bowman has only the Father in view in Rom 11:36.
Bowman says:
Here is his plain admission that ek is never used of the Son in the NT. If he believed that the Son was somehow included in Rom 11:36, he could not say that.
Bowman continues:
He clearly thinks that the NT writers should have used ek in relation to the Son, but his justification for their not doing so is the small number of occurrences of ek in this context in the NT. This does not seem a very satisfying explanation.
Bowman continues:
Again, he admits to the absence of the use of ek in relation to the Son. The conclusion Bowman makes though, has nothing to do with whether the Son is included in Rom 11:36, but a theological point about the Son’s inferiority. Bowman’s argument is not that the Son is included in Rom 11:36 – his argument is that there are not enough relevant occurrences of ek to draw a conclusion from the fact that he admits i.e. that ek is not used of the Son (and therefore not in Rom 11:36) – and his chart demonstrates that point.
In Hope.
Elpis.
Hi Elp: Welcome back, did you read Bowman's own explanation of his intent on the chart? He makes it as plain as day that his purpose is to illustrate the weakness inherent in the notorious argument from silence, as illustrated by the other passages. Hence, as he cites from Bauckham, in Romans 11:36 we have three "causal functions" cited with the prepositions "EK"...DIA
...and EIS.
Here' Bowman:
Bauckham rightly understands the three phases to express God's causation of all things in the three ways: God is the efficient cause (ex autou), the instrumental cause (di' autou), and the final cause (eis auton). All three of the prepositional phrases in Romans 11:36 occur in 1 Corinthians 8:6, which states, 'To us there is one God, the Father, from whom [ex hou] are all things and we for him [eis auton], and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom [di' hou] are all things and we through him [di' auton] (literal translation). As Bauckham notes, Paul here assigns two of the three causal functions of God to the Father and the third to Christ.
One should not infer from 1 Corinthians 8:6 that the causal functions assigned there to God the Father are not also applicable to the Son or vice versa (see table).
Now note, Elp, that Bowman refers to "causal functionS. . .with Romans 11:36 as the object of comparison. Bowman is arguing that the argument from silence is insufficient to justify RobR's conclusion that only God the Father is "in view" in Romans 11:36. Not only does he flat out say that we should not make RobR's inference, but he goes on to show that even EIS is assigned to the Son in another passage having to do with TA PANTA (Col. 1:16)...hence the failure to mention Jesus Christ in Romans 11:36 is not sufficient evidence to justify RobR's conclusion that 11:36 has only God the Father in view. And it is right at this point (where Bowman gives his caution against making Robr's inference), he has a footnote #12....note what he says in the footnote:
12. Similarly, one should not infer that the Father is not the 'one Lord' (which would mean that the Father is not Jehovah), nor that Jesus Christ is not the 'one God'".
So his footnote echoes his caution about the unreliable argument from silence in Romans 11:36, so his intent for the chart is to illustrate (by comparing other passages) the weakness inherent in the argument from silence. So he's not intending (as
RobR claims) to say that Romans 11:36 has only the Father in view. Instead his point is that even though the Son is not specified...does not justify RobR's inference that only God the Father is in view. ....and the footnote follows in the same pattern. The comparison of passages in the chart then intends to show how silence in one passage....is made up for in another. And with this pattern already established, he then argues that even though "EK" is applied only to the Father, "the absence of this wording with reference to Jesus is therefore too slender an argument from silence to prove any inferiority of the Son's role in creation."
So RobR was dead wrong to claim Bowman as a "hostile witness" since he openly and straight-forwardly argued for the Orthodox view and did not testify in any way aggreeable with RobR's claims. Bowman knows more about his intent in the chart than RobR or you or me. And I just showed what his intention was...and showed how that intention was pictured in the chart. His only putting God the Father over the Romans 11:36 example is exactly what we should expect with his intended goal in mind.....i.e. nobody denies that the Father is in view, but he also wants to show that it's not the Father alone who's in view, as RobR attempted to give Bowman credit for.
1st Cor. 8:4-6 shows that the Son as well as the Father are distinguished from TA PANTA by priority of existence, and that makes both true deity since only true deity exists before TA PANTA....and note also that both the Father and Christ are contrasted against the false deities of paganism. So there's plenty of evidence in just these two passages (11:36 & 8:4-6) to justify the Orthodox inclusion of identifying both as true Deity.
And again, Bowman in no way allows for RobR's inference that 11:36 has only the FAther in view. He proves the opposite and illustrates the same in his chart. He was clearly misrepresented.
Take care,
Ray
yes the forum was at its peak then and went downhill rather quickly after Diane went to be with the Lord.This is great!
It is sad that Matt and his crew got the way they did. At one time, they had a very good balance going there!
yes the forum was at its peak then and went downhill rather quickly after Diane went to be with the Lord.
yes a very reasonable person. I had many offline conversations with her via email.I'm glad you said that. I agree completely. She could be tough but she was generally very fair.
Exactly. The Apostles were just using the same name that the Alexandrian Jews had already assigned to God. This practice went all the way back to the 3rd Century BC. JW are so ignorant of history it's scandelous.As is also found throughout the LXX.
2 Thes 2:3 Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction,Yes he started Catholicism it was foretold( 2 Thess 2:3)--They screwed up translating, removed Gods name against his will, thus the protestants could not fix much because they used Catholicism translating. God fixed it here in these last days.
Good point. I guess the main reason why no one ever came out and talked about it in Scripture is because it’s not a divine revelation about who God is,If there is a trinity then why not just come out and say it? Why do we have to jump all over the Bible cutting and pasting pieces of words that are scattered all over the Bible. Why not just teach it? I know enough about how the Bible is written in the New Testament and in the Gospels to know if there was a trinity it would have been taught. The Gospels would have clearly said... Verily, verily I say unto you that I am Jesus and I'm also God. The Epistles would have writings like Yay, I Paul do testify that Jesus who is God came down from heaven to be a man for us. And we do know and testify that this same Jesus who you crucified is God. And so let us bow our knee to the one and only true God-Man Jesus Christ. And yet there's nothing like that anywhere. Not in the Old or New Testament. Not even one complete verse like that.
They keep throwing John 1:1 in front of me even after I have already given detailed data on that verse. Today I wrote...Good point. I guess the main reason why no one ever came out and talked about it in Scripture is because it’s not a divine revelation about who God is,
One thing I firmly believe that if the Trinity were real then we should just be able to plug in the word “Trinity” into verses that say “God” and it would be coherent and make perfect sense.
Try this anywhere in the Bible. Replacing the word God with Trinity anywhere results in contradictions, word salad, and mountains of error. Furthermore, you would have thought something as important as who God is would have been paramount in the teaching about the gospel. No one said believe in the Trinity or believe Jesus is God to be saved.
Consistently the only true God is the Father in the Bible.
I think where we part ways with the Trinitarian religion is we approach the Bible from a hardline conservative and evidence-based perspective while the Trinitarians are generally more liberal and elevate church creeds, traditions, feelings, and beliefs above Scripture. Case in point, the Trinity isn’t described in the Bible already. So it’s best to call the Trinity a doctrine, but recognize it’s also false.
Yes the language of John 1:1 is a Unitarian prooftext and the entire narrative of the chapter supports the exclusive deity of God the Father. People can argue and argue like a good lawyer but we know that the Word is not The God in John 1:1.They keep throwing John 1:1 in front of me even after I have already given detailed data on that verse. Today I wrote...
I can say that in my beginning there was my word, and my word was with me, and my word was me. And that does not make my words a living thing. Only a fool would think my words were another me. It says Word. Words are not living things. I should not have to tell you this. We teach children in first grade that words are not alive.
They keep throwing John 1:1 in front of me even after I have already given detailed data on that verse. Today I wrote...
I can say that in my beginning there was my word, and my word was with me, and my word was me. And that does not make my words a living thing. Only a fool would think my words were another me. It says Word. Words are not living things. I should not have to tell you this. We teach children in first grade that words are not alive.
It says word. It does not say Jesus. It does not say God. What am I talking to? A bunch of first graders? I have to tell them that words are not living things.Yes the language of John 1:1 is a Unitarian prooftext and the entire narrative of the chapter supports the exclusive deity of God the Father. People can argue and argue like a good lawyer but we know that the Word is not The God in John 1:1.
a word or words are never a person in the Old Testament. I think people can’t accept that the Bible isn’t 100% literal. Ever seen all the verses where the logos of God snd Jesus are mentioned in the same sentence? What about 1 John 1:1-3 where the Word of life is eternal life and apostle John said it’s a thing? I’ve seen nothing but straight denials when it comes to these hard questions about the logos.It says word. It does not say Jesus. It does not say God. What am I talking to? A bunch of first graders? I have to tell them that words are not living things.
It says word. It does not say Jesus. It does not say God. What am I talking to? A bunch of first graders? I have to tell them that words are not living things.
I think people can’t accept that the Bible isn’t 100% literal.
Good examples of metaphor. Wisdom is personified in Proverbs 8.Like.... Pro 18:21 Death and life are in the power of the tongue:
Pro 10:31 The mouth of the just bringeth forth wisdom: but the froward tongue shall be cut out.
There's a lot of figures or speech in the Bible. They have always been used in all languages and are still used often today.a word or words are never a person in the Old Testament. I think people can’t accept that the Bible isn’t 100% literal. Ever seen all the verses where the logos of God snd Jesus are mentioned in the same sentence? What about 1 John 1:1-3 where the Word of life is eternal life and apostle John said it’s a thing? I’ve seen nothing but straight denials when it comes to these hard questions about the logos.
There's a lot of figures or speech in the Bible. They have always been used in all languages and are still used often today.
3 translations...They keep throwing John 1:1 in front of me even after I have already given detailed data on that verse. Today I wrote...
I can say that in my beginning there was my word, and my word was with me, and my word was me. And that does not make my words a living thing. Only a fool would think my words were another me. It says Word. Words are not living things. I should not have to tell you this. We teach children in first grade that words are not alive.