The butchering of John 1:1 by JW anti-Trinitarian Translators

3 translations...

Try John 8: especially 24.... posted to not take out of context.


NASB95

21Then He said again to them, “I go away, and you will seek Me, and will die in your sin; where I am going, you cannot come.”

22So the Jews were saying, “Surely He will not kill Himself, will He, since He says, ‘Where I am going, you cannot come’?”

23And He was saying to them, “You are from below, I am from above; you are of this world, I am not of this world.


24“Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins; for unless you believe that I am He, you will die in your sins.”

25So they were saying to Him, “Who are You?” Jesus said to them, “What have I been saying to you from the beginning?

26“I have many things to speak and to judge concerning you, but He who sent Me is true; and the things which I heard from Him, these I speak to the world.”

27They did not realize that He had been speaking to them about the Father.


28So Jesus said, “When you lift up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am He, and I do nothing on My own initiative, but I speak these things as the Father taught Me.

29“And He who sent Me is with Me; He has not left Me alone, for I always do the things that are pleasing to Him.”

30As He spoke these things, many came to believe in Him.
CJB
21 Again he told them, “I am going away, and you will look for me, but you will die in your sin — where I am going, you cannot come.”

22 The Judeans said, “Is he going to commit suicide? Is that what he means when he says, ‘Where I am going, you cannot come’?”

23 Yeshua said to them, “You are from below, I am from above; you are of this world, I am not of this world.


24 This is why I said to you that you will die in your sins; for if you do not trust that I AM [who I say I am], you will die in your sins.”
25 At this, they said to him, “You? Who are you?” Yeshua answered, “Just what I’ve been telling you from the start.

26 There are many things I could say about you, and many judgments I could make. However, the One who sent me is true; so I say in the world only what I have heard from him.”

27 They did not understand that he was talking to them about the Father.


28 So Yeshua said, “When you lift up the Son of Man, then you will know that I AM [who I say I am], and that of myself I do nothing, but say only what the Father has taught me.

29 Also, the One who sent me is still with me; he did not leave me to myself, because I always do what pleases him.”

30 Many people who heard him say these things trusted in him.


Peshitta
21Yeshua spoke again to them: “I am moving on and you will seek me and you will die in your sins, and where I am going, you cannot come.”


22The Judeans were saying, “Will he now kill himself?”, because he had said, “Where I am going, you cannot come.”

23And he said to them, “You are from below and I am from above. You are from this world; I am not from this world.”


24“I said to you that you shall die in your sins, for unless you shall believe that I AM THE LIVING GOD, you shall die in your sins.”

25The Judeans were saying, “Who are you?” Yeshua said to them, “Even though I have begun to talk with you,

26There are many things for me to say and judge concerning you, but he who has sent me is true, and those things that I have heard from him, these things I am speaking in the world.”

27And they did not know that he spoke to them about The Father.


28Yeshua spoke again to them: “When you have lifted up The Son of Man, then you shall know that I AM THE LIVING GOD, and I do nothing for my own pleasure, but just as my Father has taught me, so I am speaking.

29And he who has sent me is with me, and my Father has not left me alone, because I am doing always what is beautiful to him.”

30When he was speaking these things, many trusted in him.

Gotta loved that Peshitta
Lets talk about these 2 verses that you have in red and in large print...

24 Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins; for unless you believe that I am He, [My Bible does not have "He" capsulized. In fact, the word "he" is not even in the text which is why the KJV has it in italics. And to believe that he is who he says... is the son of God, the Messiah. There is nothing in this verse that should cause anyone to believe he was claiming that he was something other than the Messiah.] you will die in your sins.”

28 So Jesus said, “When you lift up the Son of Man, [He said the son of man. He did not say the God man.] then you will know that I am He, and I do nothing on My own initiative, but I speak these things as the Father taught Me.
 
If you need help understanding any sentence ask.

Paul has agreed with one statement made by the Corinthians (1 Corinthians 8:1) and now he agrees with another. In both cases, he opens a wider view to come to a better conclusion. The believers in Corinth seem to be arguing that because the many idols in Corinth are non-existent—because there is only one true God—they should be allowed to participate in the life of the city, even when it includes functions inside of idol temples and eating food offered to idols.

Paul has agreed that there are many "so-called" gods and lords (1 Corinthians 8:5). That is undeniable. He also agrees there is one true God. He will use this great truth, though, to eventually make the point that those who belong to the one true God should have nothing to do with any false gods.

For us, Paul writes, there is indeed one God. He is the Father. All things come from Him and we exist for Him. Also, there is only one Lord. He is Jesus Christ. All things exist through Him, including us. Paul's declaration of the one God and Lord as Father and Christ is masterful and clarifying. Together, both Father and Son exist as one in the Trinity with the Holy Spirit. They are distinct in their roles and functions and yet, mysteriously, still one.

Paul's main emphasis, though, is that Christians are from God, exist through our Lord, and exist for God. It is that very fact—that there is only one true God—to whom we are obligated that we should fully separate ourselves from even the most mundane contact with any idols or gods.


Albert Barnes Commentary on this.https://www.bibliaplus.org/en/commentaries/4/albert-barnes-bible-commentary/1-corinthians/8/6

But to us - Christians. We acknowledge but one God, Whatever the pagan worship, we know that there is but one God; and he alone has a right to rule over us.

One God, the Father - Whom we acknowledge as the Father of all; Author of all things; and who sustains to all his works the relation of a father. The word “Father” here is not used as applicable to the first person of the Trinity, as distinguished from the second, but is applied to God as God; not as the Father in contradistinction from the Son, but to the divine nature as such, without reference to that distinction - the Father as distinguished from his offspring, the works that owe their origin to him. This is manifest:

(1) Because the apostle does not use the correlative term” Son” when he comes to speak of the “one Lord Jesus Christ;” and,

(2) Because the scope of the passage requires it. The apostle speaks of God, of the divine nature, the one infinitely holy Being, as sustaining the relation of Father “to his creatures.” He produced them, He provides for them. He protects them, as a father does his children. He regards their welfare; pities them in their sorrows; sustains them in trial; shows himself to be their friend. The name “Father” is thus given frequently to God, as applicable to the one God, the divine Being; Psalms 103:13; Jeremiah 31:9; Malachi 1:6; Malachi 2:10; Matthew 6:9; Luke 11:2, etc. In other places it is applied to the first person of the Trinity as distinguished from the second; and in these instances the correlative “Son” is used, Luke 10:22; Luke 22:42; John 1:18; John 3:35; John 5:19, John 5:26, John 5:30, John 5:36; Heb 1:5; 2 Peter 1:17, etc.

Of whom - ἐξ οὗ ex hou. From whom as a fountain and source; by whose counsel, plan, and purpose. He is the great source of all; and all depend on him. It was by his purpose and power that all things were formed, and to all he sustains the relation of a Father. The agent in producing all things, however, was the Son, Colossians 1:16; see the note at John 1:3.

Are all things - These words evidently refer to the whole work of creation, as deriving their origin from God, Genesis 1:1. Everything has thus been formed in accordance with his plan; and all things now depend on him as their Father.

And we - We Christians. We are what we are by him. We owe our existence to him; and by him we have been regenerated and saved. It is owing to his counsel, purpose, agency, that we have an existence; and owing to him that we have the hope of eternal life. The leading idea here is, probably, that to God Christians owe their hopes and happiness.

In him - (εἰς αὐτόν eis auton); or rather unto him: that is, we are formed for him, and should live to his glory. We have been made what we are, as Christians, that we may promote his honor and glory.

And one Lord ... - One Lord in contradistinction from the “many lords” whom the pagans worshipped. The word “Lord” here is used in the sense of proprietor, ruler, governor, or king; and the idea is, that Christians acknowledge subjection to Him alone, and not to many sovereigns, as the pagans did. Jesus Christ is the Ruler and Lord of his people. They acknowledge their allegiance to him as their supreme Lawgiver and King. They do not acknowledge subjection to many rulers, whether imaginary gods or human beings; but receive their laws from him alone. The word “Lord” here does not imply of necessity any inferiority to God; since it is a term which is frequently applied to God himself. The idea in the passage is, that from God, the Father of all, we derive our existence, and all that we have; and that we acknowledge “immediate and direct” subjection to the Lord Jesus as our Lawgiver and Sovereign. From him Christians receive their laws, and to him they submit their lives. And this idea is so far from supposing inferiority in the Lord Jesus to God, that it rather supposes equality; since a right to give laws to people, to rule their consciences, to direct their religious opinions and their lives, can appropriately pertain only to one who has equality with God.

By whom ... - δἰ οὗ di' hou. By whose “agency;” or through whom, as the agent. The word “by” (δι ̓ di') stands in contradistinction from “of” (ἐξ ex) in the former part of the verse; and obviously means, that, though “all things” derived their existence from God as the fountain and author, yet it was “by” the agency of the Lord Jesus. This doctrine, that the Son of God was the great agent in the creation of the world, is elsewhere abundantly taught in the Scriptures; see the note at John 1:3.

Are all things - The universe; for so the phrase τὰ πάντα ta panta properly means. No words could better express the idea of the universe than these; and the declaration is therefore explicit that the Lord Jesus created all things. Some explain this of the “new creation;” as if Paul had said that all things pertaining to our salvation were from him. But the objections to this interpretation are obvious:

(1) It is not the natural signification.

(2) The phrase “all things” naturally denotes the universe.

(3) The scope of the passage requires us so to understand it. Paul is not speaking of the new creature; but he is speaking of the question whether there is more than one God, one Creator, one Ruler over the wide universe. The pagan said there was; Christians affirmed that there was not. The scope, therefore, of the passage requires us to understand this of the vast material universe; and the obvious declaration here is, that the Lord Jesus was the Creator of all.

And we - We Christians 1 Peter 1:21; or, we as people; we have derived our existence “by” δι ̓ di' or “through” him. The expression will apply either to our original creation, or to our hopes of heaven, as being by him; and is equally true respecting both. Probably the idea is, that all that we have, as people and as Christians, our lives and our hopes, are through him and by his agency.

By him - δι ̓ αὐτόυ di' autou. By his agency. Paul had said, in respect to God the Father of all, that we were unto εἰς eis him; he here says that in regard to the Lord Jesus, we are by διά dia Him, or by His agency. The sense is, “God is the author, the former of the plan; the Source of being and of hope; and we are to live to Him: but Jesus is the agent by whom all these things are made, and through whom they are conferred on us.” Arians and Socinians have made use of this passage to prove that the Son was inferior to God; and the argument is, that the “name” God is not given to Jesus, but another name implying inferiority; and that the design of Paul was to make a distinction between God and the Lord Jesus. It is not the design of these notes to examine opinions in theology; but in reply to this argument we may observe, briefly:

(1) That those who hold to the divinity of the Lord Jesus do not deny that there is a distinction between him and the Father: they fully admit and maintain it, both in regard to his eternal existence (that is, that there is an eternal distinction of persons in the Godhead) and in regard to his office as mediator.

(2) The term “Lord,” given here, does not of necessity suppose that he is inferior to God.

(3) The design of the passage supposes that there was equality in some respects. God the Father and the Lord Jesus sustain relations to people that in some sense correspond to the “many gods” and the “many lords” that the pagan adored; but they were equal in nature.

(4) The work of creation is expressly in this passage ascribed to the Lord Jesus. But the work of creation cannot be performed by a creature. There can be no delegated God, and no delegated omnipotence, or delegated infinite wisdom and omnipresence. The work of creation implies divinity; or it is impossible to prove that there is a God; and if the Lord Jesus made “all things,” he must be God.
Yes Paul named only the Father as that one true God.
 
What? Who cares about anything relative to "Greek to English"? English is a butchered language not worthy of Divinity. English is a "smorgasbord" of nonsense, conjecture and error. It is one of the most difficult languages ever among men whereby we can communicate. It affords endlessly similar words that are at times dramatically different in connotation from one another.

The confusion that God placed in humanity at "Babel" is not over.
99% minimum are being mislead.
 
Quote it all. If you do, you're creating a logical fallacy.

1Co 8:6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
1Co 8:7 Howbeit there is not in every man that knowledge: for some with conscience of the idol unto this hour eat it as a thing offered unto an idol; and their conscience being weak is defiled.

You're reference titles. Notice how Jesus Christ is excluded from idolatry.
One God= the Father
 
2 Thes 2:3 Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction,

You simply are unable to actually read a biblical verse and not twist it to suit yourself. READ THIS.. We can help you to understand.

2 Thes 2 ....... Nasb95

2 Now we request you, brethren, with regard to the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him,

2 that you not be quickly shaken from your composure or be disturbed either by a spirit or a message or a letter as if from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come.

3 Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction,

4 who opposes and exalts himself above every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, displaying himself as being God.

5 Do you not remember that while I was still with you, I was telling you these things?

6 And you know what restrains him now, so that in his time he will be revealed.

7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only he who now restrains will do so until he is taken out of the way.

8 Then that lawless one will be revealed whom the Lord will slay with the breath of His mouth and bring to an end by the appearance of His coming;

9 that is, the one whose coming is in accord with the activity of Satan, with all power and [h]signs and false wonders,

10 and with all the deception of wickedness for those who perish, because they did not receive the love of the truth so as to be saved.

11 For this reason God will send upon them [k]a deluding influence so that they will believe what is false,

12 in order that they all may be judged who did not believe the truth, but [n]took pleasure in wickedness.

13 But we should always give thanks to God for you, brethren beloved by the Lord, because God has chosen you [o]from the beginning for salvation through sanctification by the Spirit and faith in the truth.

14 It was for this He called you through our gospel, [r]that you may gain the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ.

15 So then, brethren, stand firm and hold to the traditions which you were taught, whether by word of mouth or by letter from us.

16 Now may our Lord Jesus Christ Himself and God our Father, who has loved us and given us eternal comfort and good hope by grace,

17 comfort and strengthen your hearts in every good work and word.

THERE IS ABSOLUTELY NOTHING HERE THAT WOULD INDICATE THAT CATHOLSISM WAS FORETOLD HERE.
NOTHING

THERE IS NOTHING HERE ABOUT ANY CHURCH BUT IF IT IS AS YOU SAY... I SAY IT WAS THE BRANCH DAVIDIANS NOT THE RCC.

IS SATAN IN THE CHURCH TODAY? MOST CERTAINLY. MY FORMER CHURCH WITH A STUDY OF THE GODDESS SOPHIA,
AS WELL AS ORDAINING AND MARRYING GAYS...
AND POSSIBLY IN MY EVANGELICAL ONE WITH THE USE OF THE NIV

YES IN THE RCC. JUST LOOK AT ALL THE PEDOPHILES TO NAME ONE THING.

AND ALL MAINLINE PROTESTANT CHURCHES.

AND I GUARANTEE YOURS TOO.......

Dont blame it all on the RCC... Martin Luther did try to distance from them.

And Satan did not start the church... he just snuck in when no one was looking... His crowning glory had to have been Pope Pius' relationship to Hitler.

I am not Catholic. I disbelieve most every thing about the way they worship. But Satan is not the one who started that church....
You best relook. Yes the protestants clearly saw satan owned Catholicism and ran, but could not fix much out of the altered translating done by Catholicism. Info was not that easily gotten in the 14th century.
In the late 1960,s or early 70,s Catholicism allowed JW leaders into their archives, they came out with 100% proof--the spirit, water and blood were the 3 witness bearers, Catholicism put Father, son and holy spirit in its place to mislead. The JW,s were never allowed back in. The protestants had no clue about that or many other things as well. God fixed things here in these last days. Rejected by all using altered translation.
 
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FAQ: Why does the Watchtower Society translate the second Greek word theós per
John 1:1 as a deity in lower case instead of upper case?


REPLY: The Watchtower Society's translation is based upon a self-imposed rule of
grammar, to wit:

When theós is modified by the definite article "ho" the Society translates it in upper
case, viz: in the Society's theological thinking; ho theós pertains to the one true
God, while theós alone is somewhat flexible; for example John 1:18 and John 20:17
where the Society translates theós in upper case though it be not modified by ho.

However, according to Dr. Archibald T. Robertson's "Grammar Of The Greek New
Testament", page 767: in regards to nouns in the predicate; the article is not
essential to speech. In other words: when theós is in the predicate, ho can be
either used, or not used, without making any real difference.

So then; a translator's decision whether to capitalize the second theós in John 1:1
or not to capitalize it, is entirely arbitrary rather than dictated by a strict rule of
Greek grammar.

Of course the Society prefers that the Word be a lower case deity because that
spelling is agreeable with their version of his status; whereas most conventional
Christians prefer the upper case because that spelling is agreeable with their
version of the Word's status; whereas according to Robertson, either spelling is
acceptable.

For that reason I do not recommend debating with JWs over the spelling in John
1:1 seeing as how the grammatical ground they stand on is just as solid as ours.
_
Well said @Olde Tymer.

J.
 
Four is not 20 is it?

and divine is not a god

PS and you continue in ignorance for it is the same root word

Here are the Greek root and the Greek root transliterated for the received text of John 1:1


aεναρχωειμιbολεγω,καιολεγωειμιcπροςο θεος,καιολεγωdειμιθεος.
enarchōeimiolegōkaiolegōeimiproso theoskaiolegōeimitheos
The Holy Bible: King James Version (Electronic Edition of the 1900 Authorized Version.; Bellingham, WA: Logos Research Systems, Inc., 2009), Jn 1:1.




y
Better still-

1730403467660.png

Look at the 3 Imperfect Tenses of En and pros ton Theon.

J.
 
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. . . the Jehovah’s Witnesses have incorporated in their translation of the New Testament several quite erroneous renderings of the Greek.

I would advise you to get a translation other than the NWT, because ninety-nine percent of the scholars of the world who know Greek and who have helped translate the Bible are in disagreement with the Jehovah’s Witnesses. People who are looking for the truth ought to know what the majority of the scholars really believe. They should not allow themselves to be misled by the Jehovah’s Witnesses.

 
Just below this paragraph is John 1:1 in the Greek. I will focus on the Greek word "Θεὸς" and how the JWs have deviously translated Θεὸς incorrectly to “a god”, thus brewing up the phrase “the Word was a god” which demotes Jesus to just a man.

(John 1:1) ᾿Εν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος, καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος.

First Failure by JWs:

The word Θεός (Theos) translates to God, plain and simple.

Second Failure by JWs:

Theses are the Indefinite Articles in Greek:

Singular Indefinite Articles, all of them translate to “one”
– Masculine: ένας
– Feminine: μία
– Neuter: ένα

Plural Indefinite Articles, all of them translate to “several”
– Masculine: μερικοί
– Feminine: μερικές
– Neuter: μερικά

Now, where does anyone see any of these Greek indefinite articles in John 1:1? Where?!?!

Conclusion:
The JW dirt poor understanding of Greek has been exposed. Their attempt to desecrate Jesus and the Trinity will not succeed.
Nowhere-

John 1:1 in Greek (SBLGNT):
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος, καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος.

Lexham Bible Translation:

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."

Parsing Each Clause in Greek
Clause 1: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος
Ἐν ἀρχῇ (en archēi)
Ἐν (preposition) + ἀρχῇ (noun, feminine singular dative) – "in the beginning"
This prepositional phrase (ἐν + dative) indicates the temporal location: "at the beginning of time" or "in the beginning."
ἦν (ēn)
Verb, imperfect indicative active, 3rd person singular – "was"
The imperfect tense indicates a continuous action in past time; here, it conveys that the Word existed continuously in the beginning.
ὁ Λόγος (ho Logos)
ὁ (definite article, nominative masculine singular) + Λόγος (noun, nominative masculine singular) – "the Word"
The use of the definite article identifies "the Word" as a distinct and particular entity, emphasizing pre-existence and identity.
Summary:
The imperfect tense of ἦν and the preposition ἐν ἀρχῇ convey that "the Word" already existed at the beginning, pointing to His eternal nature.

Clause 2: καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν
καὶ (kai)

Coordinating conjunction – "and"
Links the previous clause to the next, building a progression in the description of the Word’s relationship to God.
ὁ Λόγος ἦν (ho Logos ēn)

As before, ἦν is imperfect, showing continuity; ὁ Λόγος is still the subject. Together, they mean "the Word was."
πρὸς τὸν Θεόν (pros ton Theon)

πρὸς (preposition) + τὸν Θεόν (article + noun, accusative masculine singular) – "with God"
πρὸς is generally translated as "with" here, indicating relationship or close association. It can imply "face-to-face" or "toward" in Greek, suggesting both intimacy and distinct personhood.
τὸν Θεόν (the accusative form of Θεός, "God") denotes direction toward God, implying relational distinction yet also unity.
Summary:
This clause emphasizes that "the Word" had an intimate relationship with God while maintaining distinct personhood, which suggests both unity and distinction within the Godhead.

Clause 3: καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος
καὶ (kai)

Again a coordinating conjunction – "and"
This conjunction links the final attribute, declaring something about the nature of "the Word."
Θεὸς (Theos)

Noun, nominative masculine singular – "God"
Placed before the verb for emphasis. Unlike previous mentions, Θεὸς here lacks the definite article, which can imply that the nature or essence of "the Word" is being described, rather than identifying Him as God the Father.
This construction is significant in Greek syntax because the predicate nominative (Θεὸς) comes before the subject (ὁ Λόγος), which indicates qualitative emphasis.
ἦν ὁ Λόγος (ēn ho Logos)

Verb ἦν (imperfect indicative active, 3rd person singular) + subject ὁ Λόγος
With Θεὸς as the predicate nominative, the phrase translates to "the Word was God," underscoring the Word’s divine nature.

This final clause asserts that "the Word" shares in the divine essence. The structure emphasizes that while the Word is distinct from the Father, He is fully God in essence.

Syntactic and Theological Implications
Each clause builds on the other, establishing that:

The Word existed in eternity past (Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος),
The Word had a distinct, intimate relationship with God (ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν),
The Word’s nature is fully divine (καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος).

The absence of an article with Θεὸς (καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος) avoids equating the Word as the Father, which maintains the distinction of persons within the Godhead. Instead, the grammar and syntax suggest that the Word shares the divine nature, emphasizing both distinction and oneness within the nature of God as understood by early Christian theology.

J.
 
That is a title, not Gods name. And you are wrong. Catholicism removed Gods name and replaced it with titles. 300 years after the apostles.
Catholics did not write the bible

You are speaking nonsense
 
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Nowhere-

John 1:1 in Greek (SBLGNT):
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος, καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος.

Lexham Bible Translation:

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."

Parsing Each Clause in Greek
Clause 1: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος
Ἐν ἀρχῇ (en archēi)
Ἐν (preposition) + ἀρχῇ (noun, feminine singular dative) – "in the beginning"
This prepositional phrase (ἐν + dative) indicates the temporal location: "at the beginning of time" or "in the beginning."
ἦν (ēn)
Verb, imperfect indicative active, 3rd person singular – "was"
The imperfect tense indicates a continuous action in past time; here, it conveys that the Word existed continuously in the beginning.
ὁ Λόγος (ho Logos)
ὁ (definite article, nominative masculine singular) + Λόγος (noun, nominative masculine singular) – "the Word"
The use of the definite article identifies "the Word" as a distinct and particular entity, emphasizing pre-existence and identity.
Summary:
The imperfect tense of ἦν and the preposition ἐν ἀρχῇ convey that "the Word" already existed at the beginning, pointing to His eternal nature.

Clause 2: καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν
καὶ (kai)

Coordinating conjunction – "and"
Links the previous clause to the next, building a progression in the description of the Word’s relationship to God.
ὁ Λόγος ἦν (ho Logos ēn)

As before, ἦν is imperfect, showing continuity; ὁ Λόγος is still the subject. Together, they mean "the Word was."
πρὸς τὸν Θεόν (pros ton Theon)

πρὸς (preposition) + τὸν Θεόν (article + noun, accusative masculine singular) – "with God"
πρὸς is generally translated as "with" here, indicating relationship or close association. It can imply "face-to-face" or "toward" in Greek, suggesting both intimacy and distinct personhood.
τὸν Θεόν (the accusative form of Θεός, "God") denotes direction toward God, implying relational distinction yet also unity.
Summary:
This clause emphasizes that "the Word" had an intimate relationship with God while maintaining distinct personhood, which suggests both unity and distinction within the Godhead.

Clause 3: καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος
καὶ (kai)

Again a coordinating conjunction – "and"
This conjunction links the final attribute, declaring something about the nature of "the Word."
Θεὸς (Theos)

Noun, nominative masculine singular – "God"
Placed before the verb for emphasis. Unlike previous mentions, Θεὸς here lacks the definite article, which can imply that the nature or essence of "the Word" is being described, rather than identifying Him as God the Father.
This construction is significant in Greek syntax because the predicate nominative (Θεὸς) comes before the subject (ὁ Λόγος), which indicates qualitative emphasis.
ἦν ὁ Λόγος (ēn ho Logos)

Verb ἦν (imperfect indicative active, 3rd person singular) + subject ὁ Λόγος
With Θεὸς as the predicate nominative, the phrase translates to "the Word was God," underscoring the Word’s divine nature.

This final clause asserts that "the Word" shares in the divine essence. The structure emphasizes that while the Word is distinct from the Father, He is fully God in essence.

Syntactic and Theological Implications
Each clause builds on the other, establishing that:

The Word existed in eternity past (Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος),
The Word had a distinct, intimate relationship with God (ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν),
The Word’s nature is fully divine (καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος).

The absence of an article with Θεὸς (καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος) avoids equating the Word as the Father, which maintains the distinction of persons within the Godhead. Instead, the grammar and syntax suggest that the Word shares the divine nature, emphasizing both distinction and oneness within the nature of God as understood by early Christian theology.

J.
I am assuming the parsing was from Logos software

can you tell me which work it is from.

Thank you
 
Yes I agree and was just re-emphasizing the point about Theos because Keiw1 thinks they are different words
This is probably the cause of his confusion.

Same Word, Different Function
Though Θεὸς and Θεόν have different endings, they are forms of the same word, Θεός, modified for case. Greek relies on inflectional endings to indicate the word’s function rather than on word order, allowing subtle distinctions and nuances. Here:

Θεὸς (nominative) serves to describe the divine nature of the Word.
Θεόν (accusative) establishes a relational position of the Word with God, emphasizing distinct persons.
In John 1:1, these grammatical choices reinforce theological ideas about the divine nature and relational distinction within the Godhead.

J.
 
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