The butchering of John 1:1 by JW anti-Trinitarian Translators

When you start following the 4th commandment then I will give more creedance to what you say and your interpretations.

10 laws that are still in effect if YOU TRULY believe Jesus.

So if you dont have the list Ill provide it

Matt 5:17 “Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill.

Matt 5:8 “For truly I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest letter or stroke shall pass from the Law until all is accomplished.
the righteous keep everyday as holy as possible.
Romans 6:14--We are not under the law.
Jesus brought a new covenant= Love, not written law.
 
The Greek Codex Sinaiticus was a copy of what the Apostles wrote. The Apostles did not mention the name Jehovah anywhere. You are in fact criticizing the Apostles for not mentioning the name Jehovah anywhere in their writings. That's what Heretics like JWs do, they think they're better than the Apostles.
The religion that came out of Rome and was Catholicism NEVER had Jesus. They are the foretold great apostasy=the son of peredition==owned and operated by satan from its beginning. To mislead into darkness. That is who translated the Codex sinacticus.
 
The religion that came out of Rome and was Catholicism NEVER had Jesus. They are the foretold great apostasy=the son of peredition==owned and operated by satan from its beginning. To mislead into darkness. That is who translated the Codex sinacticus.
I'm not Catholic. You're not Catholic. Nobody is Catholic. Forget about Catholics.

The fact remains that the Apostles did not mention the name Jehovah anywhere. You are in fact criticizing the Apostles for not mentioning the name Jehovah anywhere in their writings. That's what Heretics like JWs do, they think they're better than the Apostles.
 
I'm not Catholic. You're not Catholic. Nobody is Catholic. Forget about Catholics.

The fact remains that the Apostles did not mention the name Jehovah anywhere. You are in fact criticizing the Apostles for not mentioning the name Jehovah anywhere in their writings. That's what Heretics like JWs do, they think they're better than the Apostles.
I shared 3 different sources that say they did use Gods name in the NT.
Ex 9:16--Jehovah wants his name declared in all the earth.--Ps 105:3= Boast about Jehovah's name
Rom 10:13-14--Gods name must be used
Even the bible proves you need to read it. Read a real translation with Gods name in over 7000 places.
Jesus used it and promised to keep on making his Fathers name known-John 17:6,26--the apostles did the same as all true followers do
So get out of the darkness.
 
I shared 3 different sources that say they did use Gods name in the NT.
Ex 9:16--Jehovah wants his name declared in all the earth.--Ps 105:3= Boast about Jehovah's name
Rom 10:13-14--Gods name must be used
Even the bible proves you need to read it. Read a real translation with Gods name in over 7000 places.
Jesus used it and promised to keep on making his Fathers name known-John 17:6,26--the apostles did the same as all true followers do
So get out of the darkness.
You don't even know the Greek Name that the Apostles used to name God.

That exposes and confirms your JW religion as Ignorant, anti-Apostolic, anti-Christ, anti-Greek, Judaizing, Pharisaic, Heretical, and Demonic.
 
Jesus didn't because they bowed in obeisance, not worship.
Sorry the same was offered to angels

No matter how you put it angels refused it

Rev 22:8(NWT) Well, I John was the one hearing and seeing these things. And when I had heard and seen, I fell down to worship before the feet of the angel that had been showing me these things.
Rev 22:9 But he tells me: "Be careful! Do not do that! All I am is a fellow slave of you and of your brothers who are prophets and of those who are observing the words of this scroll. Worship God."


Jesus did not
 
the righteous keep everyday as holy as possible.
Romans 6:14--We are not under the law.
Jesus brought a new covenant= Love, not written law.

Jesus ~ Matt 5:8 “For truly I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest letter or stroke shall pass from the Law until all is accomplished.

Paul~ Romans 6-14 For sin shall not be master over you, for you are not under law but under grace.

Another twisting of meaning trying to make two things mean the same.

No matter.

YOU want to believe they are talking about the same thing.... then answer this.

Which one lied?
 
Yes hosts of angels. Other translations have Jehovah of armies.

You ran from the point of the passage

More than one called Jehovah

Zechariah 2:6–12 (UASV) — 6 Come! Come! Flee from the land of the north, declares Jehovah. For I have scattered you to the four winds of the heavens, declares Jehovah. 7 Come, Zion! Make your escape, you who are dwelling with the daughter of Babylon. 8 For this is what Jehovah of armies, after his glory sent me to the nations who plundered you, for he who touches you touches my eyeball. 9 “Look, I will shake my hand over them, and they shall become plunder for those who served them. Then you will know that Jehovah of armies has sent me. 10 Sing and rejoice, O daughter of Zion, for look, I come, and I will dwell in your midst, declares Jehovah. 11 And many nations shall join themselves to Jehovah in that day and shall be my people. And I will dwell in your midst, and you shall know that Jehovah of armies has sent me to you. 12 And Jehovah will inherit Judah as his portion in the holy land and will again choose Jerusalem.”


which shows Jehovah was sent by Jehovah of armies

Are you going to deal with it, or will you just ignore it and continue to let the watchtower do your thinking for you?
 
You ran from the question

Once again, do you read anywhere of Angels bowing to another angel?

It was clever but not forthright
Angels dont bow to angels. A mistranslated word found in trinity translations has angels bowing to Jesus( Michael)--That Greek word=proskenuae( misspelled)--Carries 5 different meanings from Greek to English-1) worship to God-2) Obeisance to a king-3) honor to a judge, plus 2 more. Obeisance is 100% correct to any king who has a God like Jesus does. Your translations are erred by satans will through Catholicism translating to fit false council teachings that mislead.= 100% fact of life--this world better relook. Mislead to not enter Gods kingdom.
 
20 translations in history with a god at John 1:1, by Greek scholars-WHY?--Here is why-- There are 2 spots in the NT where 2 beings are being called God and god--John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4--Both spots the true God called Ton Theon( Ho Theos) both the Word and satan called Theos-Why? There is only 1 reason-God and god. The same exact word given to satan in Greek is given to the Word=god. If the Word were being called God, he would have gotten Ton Theon( Ho Theos). Its the only reason fathomable for why there is a difference= God and god.
The sad fact is that trinity scholars know its fact and say nothing.
 
20 translations in history with a god at John 1:1, by Greek scholars-WHY?--Here is why-- There are 2 spots in the NT where 2 beings are being called God and god--John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4--Both spots the true God called Ton Theon( Ho Theos) both the Word and satan called Theos-Why? There is only 1 reason-God and god. The same exact word given to satan in Greek is given to the Word=god. If the Word were being called God, he would have gotten Ton Theon( Ho Theos). Its the only reason fathomable for why there is a difference= God and god.
The sad fact is that trinity scholars know its fact and say nothing.
Not only do they not say anything about it, but when I point it out... the folks on here tell me they understand the Greek better than me and so I'm wrong.
 
20 translations in history with a god at John 1:1, by Greek scholars-WHY?--Here is why-- There are 2 spots in the NT where 2 beings are being called God and god--John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4--Both spots the true God called Ton Theon( Ho Theos) both the Word and satan called Theos-Why? There is only 1 reason-God and god. The same exact word given to satan in Greek is given to the Word=god. If the Word were being called God, he would have gotten Ton Theon( Ho Theos). Its the only reason fathomable for why there is a difference= God and god.
The sad fact is that trinity scholars know its fact and say nothing.
You probably want to rewatch that video and "unlike" it.

I am NOT a Greek Scholar, but my comprehension of English is excellent. They made the argument that "declensions" and the need to identify the "predicate nominative" of two things in the Greek that are equal [linking verb "is"] require ONE of the "ho" to be dropped to distinguish between ...
  • God was the Word.
  • The Word was God.
... in Greek since word order could not be counted on to establish the grammatical "subject" of the verb "is".

Neither You nor @Peterlag (in your dismissal of those that disagree) bothered to address that very specific point of Greek Grammar. To a bystander, like myself (100% Greek hack), it appears that you have only your pat answer about John 1:1 and 2 Corinthians 4:4.

While I may be a hack at GREEK, I am at least CONVERSANT in TRUTH and would happily compare those two verses side by side in English.

John 1:1
  • [KJV] In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
  • [ESV] In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
  • [YLT] In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God;
  • [DBY] In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
  • [VUL] in principio erat Verbum et Verbum erat apud Deum et Deus erat Verbum ("in the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and God was the Word" - Google Translate)

2 Corinthians 4:4
  • [KJV] In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.
  • [ESV] In their case the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, to keep them from seeing the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God.
  • [YLT] in whom the god of this age did blind the minds of the unbelieving, that there doth not shine forth to them the enlightening of the good news of the glory of the Christ, who is the image of God;
  • [DBY] in whom the god of this world has blinded the thoughts of the unbelieving, so that the radiancy of the glad tidings of the glory of the Christ, who is the image of God, should not shine forth for them.
  • [VUL] in quibus deus huius saeculi excaecavit mentes infidelium ut non fulgeat inluminatio evangelii gloriae Christi qui est imago Dei ("in which the god of this world has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that the illumination of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God, may not shine" - Google Translate)

Examining what these verses actually SAY, it is nonsensical to equate the logical chain of equality presented in John 1:1 (through repetitive "IS" equalities) which emphasize the eternal GOD-ness of Christ (the Word) with a statement in 2 Corinthians 4:4 describing "the god of this world" in contrast with Christ as the image of the true God.

John 1:1 is a comparison:
  • beginning = Word
  • Word = with God
  • Word = God

2 Corinthians 4:4 is a contrast
  • god of this world = blinded minds
  • Christ = image of God that shines

Rather than comparing single words plucked from context for a missing "ho" to draw such a critical theological conclusion as "polytheistic lesser gods", more time spent reading the CONTEXT would yield more LIGHT of Truth.
 
20 translations in history with a god at John 1:1, by Greek scholars-WHY?--Here is why-- There are 2 spots in the NT where 2 beings are being called God and god--John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4--Both spots the true God called Ton Theon( Ho Theos) both the Word and satan called Theos-Why? There is only 1 reason-God and god. The same exact word given to satan in Greek is given to the Word=god. If the Word were being called God, he would have gotten Ton Theon( Ho Theos). Its the only reason fathomable for why there is a difference= God and god.
The sad fact is that trinity scholars know its fact and say nothing.
There are not "20" recognized Greek Translations from recognized/credentialed Greek Scholars from any committee that has "a " god.

I doubt there is even one. And the NWT does not count as any recognized ( peer ) reviewed and acknowleged translation since no one who translated it was educated in N.T. Greek and had a degree in biblical languages.

next fallacy
 
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Scholar's opinion about the New World Translation About the New World translation : "...the Word was a god."​


Dr. J. R. Mantey (who is quoted on pages 1158-1159) of the Witnesses own Kingdom interlinear Translation): "A shocking mistranslation." "Obsolete and incorrect." "It is neither scholarly nor reasonable to translate John 1:1 'The Word was a god.'"

Dr. Bruce M. Metzger of Princeton (Professor of New Testament Language and Literature): "A frightful mistranslation." "Erroneous" and "pernicious" "reprehensible". "If the Jehovah's Witnesses take this translation seriously, they are polytheists."

Dr. Samuel J. Mikolaski of Zurich, Switzerland: "This anarthrous (used without the article) construction does not mean what the indefinite article 'a' means in English. It is monstrous to translate the phrase 'the Word was a god.'"

Dr. Paul L. Kaufman of Portland, Oregon: "The Jehovah's Witnesses people evidence an abysmal ignorance of the basic tenets of Greek grammar in their mistranslation of John 1:1."

Dr. Charles L. Feinberg of La Mirada, California: "I can assure you that the rendering which the Jehovah's Witnesses give John 1:1 is not held by any reputable Greek scholar."

Dr. James L. Boyer of Winona Lake, Indiana: "I have never heard of, or read of any Greek Scholar who would have agreed to the interpretation of this verse insisted upon by the Jehovah's Witnesses...I have never encountered one of them who had any knowledge of the Greek language."
Dr. William Barclay of the University of Glasgow, Scotland: "The deliberate distortion of truth by this sect is seen in their New testament translations. John 1:1 is translated: '...the Word was a god,' a translation which is grammatically impossible...It is abundantly clear that a sect which can translate the New Testament like that is intellectually dishonest."

Dr. F. F. Bruce of the University of Manchester, England: "Much is made by Arian amateur grammarians of the omission of the definite article with 'God' in the phrase 'And the Word was God.' Such an omission is common with nouns in a predicative construction...'a god' would be totally indefensible." [Barclay and Bruce are generally regarded as Great Britain's leading Greek scholars. Both have New Testament translations in print!]

Dr. Ernest C. Colwell of the University of Chicago: "A definite predicate nominative has the article when it follows the verb; it does not have the article when it precedes the verb...this statement cannot be regarded as strange in the prologue of the gospel which reaches its climax in the confession of Thomas. 'My Lord and my God.' - John 20:28"

Dr. Phillip B. Harner of Heidelberg College: "The verb preceding an anarthrous predicate, would probably mean that the LOGOS was 'a god' or a divine being of some kind, belonging to the general category of THEOS but as a distinct being from HO THEOS. In the form that John actually uses, the word "THEOS" is places at the beginning for emphasis."

Dr. J. Johnson of California State University, Long Beach: "No justification whatsoever for translating THEOS EN HO LOGOS as 'the Word was a god.' There is no syntactical parallel to Acts 28:6 where there is a statement in indirect discourse; John 1:1 is direct....I am neither a Christian nor a trinitarian."

Dr. Eugene A. Nida, head of Translations Department, American Bible Society: "With regard to John 1:1, there is of course a complication simply because the New World Translation was apparently done by persons who did not take seriously the syntax of the Greek." [Responsible for the Good News Bible - The committee worked under him.]

Dr. B. F. Wescott (whose Greek text - not the English part - is used in the Kingdom Interlinear Translation): "The predicate (God) stands emphatically first, as in IV.24. It is necessarily without the article...No idea of inferiority of nature is suggested by the form of expression, which simply affirms the true deity of the Word...in the third clause 'the Word' is declared to be 'God' and so included in the unity of the Godhead."

Dr. J. J. Griesbach (whose Greek text - not the English part - is used in the Emphatic Diaglott): "So numerous and clear are the arguments and testimonies of Scriptures in favour of the true Deity of Christ, that I can hardly imagine how, upon the admission of the Divine authority of Scripture, and with regard to fair rules of interpretation, this doctrine can by any man be called in doubt. Especially the passage, John 1:1-3, is so clear and so superior to all exception, that by no daring efforts of either commentators or critics can it be snatched out of the hands of the defenders of the truth."

Mr. Jehovah's Witness: Are we to simply ignore these eminent Greek scholars, and stubbornly cling to the Man-made teachings of the Watchtower, none of whom had any education to speak of in Greek Grammar?!
The following is taken from the book: "Questions for Jehovah's Witnesses: "who love the truth" 2 Thess.2:10"
In the beginning was the Word.
But WHY was the Word misquoted? JOHN 1:1

This text `THE WORD WAS GOD' has been a problem for four presidents of Jehovah's Witnesses. C.T. Russell thought he found relief when in 1876 N.H. Barbour, an Adventist, introduced him to Wilson's EMPHATIC DIAGLOTT. Mr. Wilson never studied Biblical Greek in a college. He was a follower of John Thomas, a `false prophet' and founder of the Christadelphians. Thomas nor Wilson believed "THE WORD WAS GOD." In the interlinear feature of his book which is no translation at all, Wilson placed `a god' under theos. In his translation, however, of theos, he wrote: "the LOGOS was God."

F.W. Franz. the then current President of Jehovah's Witnesses, realized the deficiency of the DIAGLOTT, decided to translate his own Bible called THE NEW WORLD TRANSLATION OF THE HOLY SCRIPTURES. Mr. Franz never studied biblical or koine Greek. He did not graduate from any college nor did he receive a Rhodes Scholarship as he claims. He translates the phrase "the Word was a god." In his KINGDOM INTERLINEAR he interlineates "god was the Word." Such a translation creates another god. "To us there is one God."

F.W. Franz found a translation that agrees with his, THE NEW TESTAMENT by Johannes Greber. (SEE MAKE SURE OF ALL THINGS p.489, 1965 revision.) Who was Johannes Greber? He is the author of another book: COMMUNICATION WITH THE SPIRIT WORLD OF GOD. In it Greber writes on page 300: "After I had convinced myself at the spiritistic meetings that God's spirits speak to men through mediums, as they had spoken to the early Christian communities, my first thought was to beg for full enlightment on these problems concerning Christ. Who was Christ? My request was granted, to the smallest details, and that knowledge thenceforth constituted the most precious possession of my soul. In what follows, I shall repeat the truths regarding Christ. His life, and his work of Redemption, as they were imparted to me by the spirit which taught them."The spirit said: "At that time you were told that Christ is the highest of the spirits created by God and the sole one to be created directly; Christ Himself was not God; for many false prophets have gone out into the world" 1 John 4:1.

Greber's translation is directly from the demon world. He is quoted in Watchtower publications. (See AID TO BIBLE UNDERSTANDING p. 1134)
In the Watchtower publications ALL SCRIPTURE IS INSPIRED OF GOD & BENEFICIAL p. 327 it states: "Note what Hebrew and Greek scholar Alexander Thomson has to say in his review of the NEW WORLD TRANSLATION: "The translation is evidently the work of skilled and clever scholars," THE DIFFERENTIATOR, April 1952.

This sentence is another WATCHTOWER lie. The late Mr. Alexander Thomson was not a Greek or Hebrew Scholar. He in fact did not even formally study Greek or Hebrew in any school according to his co-editor Dr. Frank Neil Pohorlak of Inglewood, CA. Mr. Thomson was employed in a bank in Scotland and did not believe that Jesus was God.

WHAT DO GREEK SCHOLARS THINK ABOUT THE JEHOVAH'S WITNESS TRANSLATION OF JOHN 1:1?

Dr. Julius R. Mantey: Calls the Watchtower translation of John 1:1 "A GROSSLY MISLEADING TRANSLATION." It is neither scholarly nor reasonable to translate John 1:1 `the Word was a god." But of all the scholars in the world, so far as we know, none have translated this verse as Jehovah's Witnesses have done."

Bruce M. Metzger, Professor of New Testament Language and literature at Princeton Theological Seminary said: "Far more pernicious in this same verse is the rendering,... `and the Word was a god,' with the following footnotes:"`A god,' In contrast with `the God'." It must be stated quite frankly that, if the Jehovah's Witnesses take this translation seriously, they are polytheists. In view of the additional light which is available during this age of Grace, such a representation is even more reprehensible than were the heathenish, polytheistic errors into which ancient Israel was so prone to fall. As a matter of solid fact, however, such a rendering is a frightful mistranslation." - THEOLOGY TODAY April, 1953

Dr. J. J. Griesback: "So numerous and clear are the arguments and testimonies of Scriptures in favor of the true Diety of Christ, that I can hardly imagine how, upon the admission of the Divine authority of Scripture, and with regard to fair rules of interpretation, this doctrine can by any man be called in doubt. Especially the passage John 1:1 is so clear and so superior to all exception, that by no daring efforts of either commentators or critics can it be snatched out of the hands of the defenders of the truth."

Dr. Eugene A. Nida (Head of the Translation Department of the American Bible Society Translators of the GOOD NEWS BIBLE): "With regard to John 1:1 there is, of course, a complication simply because the NEW WORLD TRANSLATIONwas apparently done by persons who did not take seriously the syntax of the Greek."

Dr. William Barclay (University of Glasgow, Scotland): "The deliberate distortion of truth by this sect is seen in their New Testament translations. John 1:1 is translated: `...the Word was a god', a translation which is GRAMMATICALLY IMPOSSIBLE. It is abundantly clear that a sect which can translate the New Testament like that is intellectually dishonest." - THE EXPOSITORY TIMES Nov. 1953

Dr. B. F. Westcott (Whose Greek text is used in JW KINGDOM INTERLINEAR): "The predicate (God) stands emphatically first, as in John 4:24. It is necessarily without the article...No idea of inferiority of nature is suggested by the form of expression, which simply affirms the true Diety of the Word...in the third clause `the Word' is declared to be `God' and so included in the unity of the Godhead."

Dr. Ernest C. Colwell (University of Chicago): "A definite predicate nominative has the article when it follows the verb; it does not have the article when it precedes the verb;...this statement cannot be regarded as strange in the prologue of the gospel which reaches its climax in the confession of Thomas. `My Lord and my God.'" John 20:28

Dr. F. F. Bruce (University of Manchester, England): "Much is made by Arian amateur grammarians of the omission of the definite article with `God' in the phrase `And the Word was God.' Such an omission is common with nouns in a predicate construction. `a god' would be totally indefensible."

Dr. Paul L. Kaufman (Portland, OR.): "The Jehovah's Witness people evidence an abysmal ignorance of the basic tenets of Greek grammar in their mistranslation of John 1:1."

Dr. Charles L. Feinberg (La Mirada CA.): "I can assure you that the rendering which the Jehovah's Witnesses give John 1:1 is not held by any reputable Greek Scholar."

Dr. Harry A. Sturz: (Dr. Sturz is Chairman of the Language Department and Professor of Greek at Biola College) "Therefore, the NWT rendering: "the Word was a god" is not a "literal" but an ungrammatical and tendential translation. A literal translation in English can be nothing other than: "the Word was God." - THE BIBLE COLLECTOR July-December, 1971 .p12
http://www.geocities.co.jp/HeartLand-Gaien/6470/NWT-hyoban2.html
 
Not only do they not say anything about it, but when I point it out... the folks on here tell me they understand the Greek better than me and so I'm wrong.
They are going to hate finding out the hard way that they are being mislead to not enter Gods kingdom.
 
You probably want to rewatch that video and "unlike" it.

I am NOT a Greek Scholar, but my comprehension of English is excellent. They made the argument that "declensions" and the need to identify the "predicate nominative" of two things in the Greek that are equal [linking verb "is"] require ONE of the "ho" to be dropped to distinguish between ...
  • God was the Word.
  • The Word was God.
... in Greek since word order could not be counted on to establish the grammatical "subject" of the verb "is".

Neither You nor @Peterlag (in your dismissal of those that disagree) bothered to address that very specific point of Greek Grammar. To a bystander, like myself (100% Greek hack), it appears that you have only your pat answer about John 1:1 and 2 Corinthians 4:4.

While I may be a hack at GREEK, I am at least CONVERSANT in TRUTH and would happily compare those two verses side by side in English.

John 1:1
  • [KJV] In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
  • [ESV] In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
  • [YLT] In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God;
  • [DBY] In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
  • [VUL] in principio erat Verbum et Verbum erat apud Deum et Deus erat Verbum ("in the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and God was the Word" - Google Translate)

2 Corinthians 4:4
  • [KJV] In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.
  • [ESV] In their case the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, to keep them from seeing the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God.
  • [YLT] in whom the god of this age did blind the minds of the unbelieving, that there doth not shine forth to them the enlightening of the good news of the glory of the Christ, who is the image of God;
  • [DBY] in whom the god of this world has blinded the thoughts of the unbelieving, so that the radiancy of the glad tidings of the glory of the Christ, who is the image of God, should not shine forth for them.
  • [VUL] in quibus deus huius saeculi excaecavit mentes infidelium ut non fulgeat inluminatio evangelii gloriae Christi qui est imago Dei ("in which the god of this world has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that the illumination of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God, may not shine" - Google Translate)

Examining what these verses actually SAY, it is nonsensical to equate the logical chain of equality presented in John 1:1 (through repetitive "IS" equalities) which emphasize the eternal GOD-ness of Christ (the Word) with a statement in 2 Corinthians 4:4 describing "the god of this world" in contrast with Christ as the image of the true God.

John 1:1 is a comparison:
  • beginning = Word
  • Word = with God
  • Word = God

2 Corinthians 4:4 is a contrast
  • god of this world = blinded minds
  • Christ = image of God that shines

Rather than comparing single words plucked from context for a missing "ho" to draw such a critical theological conclusion as "polytheistic lesser gods", more time spent reading the CONTEXT would yield more LIGHT of Truth.
Twisting into unreality which will cost all entering Gods kingdom by breaking Gods #1 commandment daily. By serving a non existent trinity.
Isaiah 44:6--I ( not we) am YHVH(Jehovah) besides ME ( not we) there is no other God.--Isaiah 42:8--I ( not we) am (YHVH)Jehovah) that is my name.
In Ezekial about 20 x about these last days= They will have to know, i am Jehovah.
 
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