Jimmy says... so it must be true? Or What effect does this have to make some believe there was no trinity?

MTMattie

Active member
I have found faults within the King James translations of the Holy Bible and I just wonder what his meaning was and why.

Yes I know that when he commissioned it that over 54 dedicated, learned Christian men, God put His words in English in its perfection in one final translation:

But there are a couple of things that are so egregious in that Translation that people need to be wary of. Wary because no other translation uses the word Easter, and certainly there were no "Easter" celebrations when Paul and Silas were jailed , and the jailor ultimately got the family baptism. (Acts 16:33)

See:



When was the name Easter first used for the celebration of the resurrection of Jesus
http://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/47715/ddg#47724

There are a few ways to look at the origin of the word Easter:

  • That it comes from Eostre, an ancient Germanic goddess
  • That it comes from Eosturmonath, or "month of beginnings"
  • That it comes from Anglo-Saxon eastre, meaning dawn
Bede
The primary historical account of the origin of Easter comes from Bede's De temporum ratione (The Reckoning of Time, AD 725). He presents the first view mentioned above, that the word comes from Eostre, the name of an ancient Germanic goddess. He writes that this goddess had a month of celebration devoted to her, and that Anglo-Saxon Christians in early Medieval England appropriated that name for their celebration of the resurrection:
Eosturmonath has a name which is now translated "Paschal month", and which was once called after a goddess of theirs named Eostre, in whose honour feasts were celebrated in that month. Now they designate that Paschal season by her name, calling the joys of the new rite by the time-honored name of the old observance. (chapter 15)
Alternative interpretations
Bede's account seems straightforward, but many scholars doubt his analysis of the origin of the word Easter. Ronald Hutton, in Stations of the Sun, accepts that a predecessor of the word was used in association with Christian resurrection festivals in the 8th and 9th centuries. But he points to research that indicates less than perfect accuracy in Bede's explanations of this type, and summarizes:
It falls into that category of interpretations which Bede admitted to be his own, rather than generally agreed or proven fact.
Hutton also writes that the Anglo-Saxon eastre was associated with Indo-European words "signifying dawn and also goddesses who personified that event." Thus, he proposes two possible solutions that are "equally valid," both of which ultimately point back to dawn:

  • That Bede's goddess Eostre was a Germanic dawn-deity who was indeed venerated by Anglo-Saxon pagans in the Spring
  • That Bede mistakenly associated Eosturmonath with a non-existent deity, or one simply associated with dawn and not directly with springtime, and that the word actually meant, simply, "month of beginnings" or "month of openings," referring to the opening of buds in the Spring
Summary
The best we can say with some certainty is that Easter ultimately originates in Indo-European words meaning dawn. The exact connection between the concept of dawn and the Easter celebration is less certain: perhaps simply an analogy between the dawning of a day and the arrival of springtime (and therefore Passover), or perhaps via the early Spring veneration of a dawn-goddess.
That said, scholars don't cast significant doubt on Bede's timeline: that by the 8th century, Christian celebrations of the resurrection were associated with a forerunner of the word Easter.

But the main culprit, not the only , is the use of the word Godhead..

There are a number of debates in this forum between Trinitarian believers and anti- Trinitarian ones.

And I freely admit to using the word Godhead, along with others... to explain .

But where did it come from....? The translators imagination to make a point?

I did some searching and found they actually used that word for 3 different things in their bible.

Got Questions explains....

The term Godhead is found three times in the King James Version: Acts 17:29; Romans 1:20; and Colossians 2:9. In each of the three verses, a slightly different Greek word is used, but the definition of each is the same: “deity” or “divine nature.” The word Godhead is used to refer to God’s essential nature. We’ll take a look at each of these passages and what they mean.

In Acts 17, Paul is speaking on Mars Hill to the philosophers of Athens. As he argues against idolatry, Paul says, “Forasmuch then as we are the offspring of God, we ought not to think that the Godhead is like unto gold, or silver, or stone, graven by art and man’s device” (Acts 17:29, KJV). Here, the word Godhead is the translation of the Greek theion, a word used by the Greeks to denote “God” in general, with no reference to a particular deity. Paul, speaking to Greeks, used the term in reference to the only true God.

In Romans 1, Paul begins to make the case that all humanity stands guilty before God. In verse 20 he says, “The invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse” (KJV). Here, Godhead is theiotés. Paul’s argument is that all of creation virtually shouts the existence of God; we can “clearly” see God’s eternal power, as well as His “Godhead” in what He has made. “The heavens declare the glory of God; / the skies proclaim the work of his hands” (Psalm 19:1). The natural world makes manifest the divine nature of God.


Colossians 2:9 is one of the clearest statements of the deity of Christ anywhere in the Bible: “In him [Christ] dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.” The word for “Godhead” here is theotés. According to this verse, Jesus Christ is God Incarnate. He embodies all (“the fulness”) of God (translated “the Deity” in the NIV). This truth aligns perfectly with Colossians 1:19, “God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in him [Christ].”

Because the Godhead dwells bodily in Christ, Jesus could rightly claim that He and the Father are “one” (John 10:30). Because the fullness of God’s divine essence is present in the Son of God, Jesus could say to Philip, “Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father” (John 14:9).

In summary, the Godhead is the essence of the Divine Being; the Godhead is the one and only Deity. Jesus, the incarnate Godhead, entered our world and showed us exactly who God is: “No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known” (John 1:18; cf. Hebrews 1:3).

The term exemplifies my belief in the Trinity, but others, possibly never seeing it in whatever translations they read may feel that it is a contrived, made-up term, and can be discounted.
 
Greeting, as for a holiday or not. Colossians 2:16 "Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:"

as in the Godhead, Romans 1:18 "For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;" Romans 1:19 "Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them." Romans 1:20 "For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:"

101G.
 
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