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No, that is your false assertion.

You are dodging the fact that the Gentiles received the gift of the Holy Spirit before their water baptism.
Well, why did the 120 in the upper room have to obey Acts 2:38 as part of the 3000 that were baptized that day?

The 120 had the Holy Ghost prior to Acts 2:38 command too.

Good for the goose but not good for the gander in Acts 2?
 
The rise of the RCC created the revolt against obeying Acts 2:38.
Anyone that disobeyed Acts 2:38 since is her daughter.

The way to “come out from her” per Rev is to first obey Acts 2:38.


Other than that, they are her offspring.
 
Acts covers every Jesus name baptism scenario.

Acts 2 for Jews.

Acts 8 for Samaritans.

Acts 10 for gentiles.

Acts 19 fro rebaptism in Jesus name.

Modernists reject all of it.
 
So, you admit that you think the 120 separated themselves from the rest of the 3000 at Pentecost per having to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins?

If the 120 needed to be water baptized in order to be saved along with whom they preached to then you had the 120 being dead in their sins.
 
If the 120 needed to be water baptized in order to be saved along with whom they preached to then you had the 120 being dead in their sins.
You are segregating the 120 from the rest. You do realize the situation you’re creating?
 
Yes, and as with Cornelius I did so after I was already saved.
Then, obey Peter as Cornelius did, and be baptized, in the name of Jesus, Christ, whether you believe it is for the remission of sins or not. You are still disobeying the command, no matter what you think. You would be considered an outcast if you were in Cornelius‘s group.
 
You are segregating the 120 from the rest. You do realize the situation you’re creating?


The 120 were already baptized with the Holy Spirit in Acts 2:4.

They didn't need to be baptized with the Holy Spirit again in Acts 2:38.

And yes, to be given the Holy Spirit is to be baptized with the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:4; cf. Acts 15:8)
 
The command to be water baptized for the forgiveness of sins and to receive the gift of the Holy Spirit applied only to the Jews of that time period.

You cannot name one time anyone else was ever told to be water baptized for this purpose.
Sure I can. Saul in Acts 22:16. The Ethiopian Eunuch in Acts 8. Everyone in John 3:5, Rom 6:1-4, Col 2:11-14, Eph 5:26, 1 Pet 3:21 and others.
In fact, "the gift of the Holy Spirit" mentioned in Acts 2:38 was received by the Gentiles in Acts 10 before their water baptism (cf. Acts 10:45, 48)
While it is true that the Holy Spirit is mentioned in both places, the gift is different. That received by the disciples in Acts 2:1-4 is not the same as that promised in Acts 2:38. Acts 2:1-4 and Acts 10 depict the miraculous power of the Holy Spirit, but Acts 2:38 is talking about the indwelling of the Holy Spirit. You can have the miraculous power without the indwelling, (Moses, Elijah, Elisha, the other prophets, etc.). And you can have the indwelling without the miraculous power (look at every true Christian alive today).
 
Sure I can. Saul in Acts 22:16.

A Jew of that time period.

The Ethiopian Eunuch in Acts 8.

A proselyte of that time period

Thanks for proving my point.
Everyone in John 3:5

Stop there and go ahead and prove that "water" must refer to water baptism.
I've mentioned this to you before, but not surprisingly you dodged it.
 
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