“How does ‘the Word was a god’ fit with the Bible’s teaching that there is only one God?”

[JesusFan]

You cannot prove that, No originals exist. Only Catholicism translating remained of NT when the protestants translated. Very few minor fragments are older, None of John 1:1

The ECF of the early to mid second century wrote that they had received from Apostles that Jesus was God

 

[JesusFan]

LORD was not in the Hebrew texts-YHVH, or YHWH was in every one of those spots. Your reasoning is false.

The term for Lord used by Paul meant God in the LLX

 

[JesusFan]

It doesn't matter what was in the Greek language--There is capitol G God and small g god( 2 Cor 4:4)--The Word got the same Greek word satan got at 2 Cor 4:4-While the true God got a different word.

Both God the father and the Word were described as being Theos, God

 

[Keiw1]

What matters is where and in whom you are placing your faith/trust in!!!

Capital letters cannot save you!!!

The only Person who can Save you is the Word/word that was God/god and became flesh and died on the Cross/cross for your sins.

That Person is the Lord Jesus Christ = there is only One Lord who can Save you = Jesus the Christ

John 8:24 = "I told you that you would die in your sins, for unless you believe that I am He you will die in your sins.”

Try believing Jesus--The Father is greater than i.

 

[Keiw1]

It was Proven in Genesis

It was Proven in Moses/the Law

It was Proven in the OT Prophets

It was Proven when the Word/word became flesh.

It was Proven when HE Rose on the 3rd Day

It was Proven when HE Ascended back to the FATHER in the Glory HE had with the FATHER before Creation.

It was Proven on Pentecost when the FATHER poured out the Holy Spirit that was Purchased by the BLOOD of Christ.

It is Proven everytime the FATHER draws a soul to Christ to be SAVED!!!

For I/DavidTree have been born again, not of perishable seed, but of imperishable, through the living and enduring word of God = 1 Peter 1:23

Prove that i am he=the Messiah--not God.

 

[JesusFan]

Try believing Jesus--The Father is greater than i.

he stated that will agreeing to limitations of assuming human flesh, in order to be in a subordinate position while on earth, to fulfill Isaiah 53

 

[JesusFan]

Prove that i am he=the Messiah--not God.

Who has all authority, who was called the Creator of all things that were created?

 

[Keiw1]

The ECF of the early to mid second century wrote that they had received from Apostles that Jesus was God

Catholicism encyclopedia says--The apostolic Fathers knew 0 of God being a trinity. As well from my studies the council of Nicea was altered in the 20th century, thus most likely what the apostolic Fathers said as well.

 

[Keiw1]

The term for Lord used by Paul meant God in the LLX

Gods name belongs in every spot of NT where the OT is quoted and the name belongs. It has been proven.

 

[Keiw1]

Both God the father and the Word were described as being Theos, God

The true God at both spots in NT where 2 are called God or God was called Ho THEOS= The God--While the Word and satan got Theos=god under that scenario=100% fact.

 

[Keiw1]

Who has all authority, who was called the Creator of all things that were created?

One greater than Jesus gave him all authority, otherwise he had none. Matt 28:18

 

[JesusFan]

Catholicism encyclopedia says--The apostolic Fathers knew 0 of God being a trinity. As well from my studies the council of Nicea was altered in the 20th century, thus most likely what the apostolic Fathers said as well.

Actually this explains that the early church father received trinity doctrine from apostles themselves

• https://www.thegospelcoalition.org/essay/trinitarianism-in-the-early-church/

 

[JesusFan]

One greater than Jesus gave him all authority, otherwise he had none. Matt 28:18

He had same glory of God the father, and had same authority, but laid that aside to accept limitation of assuming human flesh

 

[FreeInChrist]

It doesn't matter what was in the Greek language--There is capitol G God and small g god( 2 Cor 4:4)--The Word got the same Greek word satan got at 2 Cor 4:4-While the true God got a different word.

Dead to accuracy, indeed.

The Greek text of John 1:1 and 2 Corinthians 4:4 does not contain capital or lowercase letters as we use them in English. The earliest manuscripts were written in all caps (uncials) with no distinction—so your argument about “capital G” vs “small g” does not come from the Greek at all, but from later English translation conventions.

In both verses, the same Greek word θεός (theos) is used. There is no different “word” used for Satan versus the true God—only context determines meaning.

2 Corinthians 4:4 calls Satan “the god (θεός) of this age” — clearly a functional title, not equality with the true God.

John 1:1 uses θεός for “the Word was God,” where the grammar (qualitative, not indefinite) describes the nature of the Word, not “a lesser god.”

So no.....this is not about “capital G vs small g,” and it’s not about different Greek words. That distinction is something English translators added, not something found in the original text.

If you want to argue Scripture, argue what’s actually written—not what later typography suggests.

 

[FreeInChrist]

You cannot prove that, No originals exist. Only Catholicism translating remained of NT when the protestants translated. Very few minor fragments are older, None of John 1:1

Still Dead to facts, indeed.

Saying “no originals exist” is meaningless—no ancient document survives in its original form. What matters is the manuscript evidence, and the New Testament is the most well-attested text in ancient history.

As for your claim about John 1:1—it's simply false.

We have early Greek manuscripts of John that predate both Catholic and Protestant institutions as you’re framing them:

Papyrus 66 (c. AD 200) — contains large portions of the Gospel of John, including John 1.

Papyrus 75 (late 2nd–early 3rd century) — also contains John 1 and closely matches later manuscripts.

These are not “Catholic translations”—they are Greek manuscripts, copied long before medieval Catholic dominance or any Protestant movement.

And if that’s not enough,

Codex Vaticanus (4th century)

Codex Sinaiticus (4th century)

Both contain John 1:1 in Greek, and they agree substantially with those earlier papyri.

So no, your claim that “none of John 1:1 exists in early manuscripts” is simply incorrect!

The text of John 1:1 existed, was copied, and is preserved in multiple independent Greek witnesses centuries before any later translation traditions.

If you want to challenge the verse, you’ll have to deal with the actual manuscripts—not dismiss them.

 

[FreeInChrist]

Catholicism encyclopedia says--The apostolic Fathers knew 0 of God being a trinity. As well from my studies the council of Nicea was altered in the 20th century, thus most likely what the apostolic Fathers said as well.

You’re appealing to a Catholic encyclopedia to claim the RCC altered doctrine—while at the same time blaming the RCC for corrupting everything. You can’t use it as evidence and dismiss it when it disagrees with you.

More importantly, the belief in Father, Son, and Holy Spirit as divine did not come from the RCC.

Ignatius of Antioch (AD 107) calls Jesus “our God”

Justin Martyr (2nd century) describes Father, Son, and Spirit in worship

Irenaeus (c. 180 AD) speaks of the Son and Spirit as the hands of God

These are pre-Roman Catholic system as you’re defining it. They are not medieval, not altered by Protestants, and not dependent on later councils.


And if your argument is “they were altered too,” then you’ve left evidence behind entirely—because now any historical source can be dismissed without proof.


That’s not an argument. That’s avoiding evidence.