It sure is. As such you are at a lose to explain how it supports what you're claiming.The preaching of the Gospel.
It sure is. As such you are at a lose to explain how it supports what you're claiming.The preaching of the Gospel.
Yes, it was at the point when they were listening to Paul, but not when they first heard and obeyed the Gospel. Read the text of verse 10 again. “for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation.”. If you are honest with the text, and don’t read your preconceptions into it, you MUST admit that these actions, which you said man does, must precede the reception of salvation.Yes they were already in a saved state. They were believers, the word of God was engrafted in their heart Rom 10:8
8 But what saith it? The word is nigh thee, even in thy mouth, and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith, which we preach;
So when I was born again in my military barracks, I don't recall making that confession. Not only that - about 2 weeks later I was baptized in water, and I don't recall making that confession there either. So you're telling me I was not saved, even though I believed He was my Lord in my heart?That is what the Holy Spirit is saying through Paul in Rom 10:9-10, yes. Now, I also know that there are the mute in the world whose "mouth" (the instrument through which they speak) is their hands. And I believe that for them God accepts the signs claiming Jesus as their Lord. Does that invalidate the command? No. Because God is perfectly justified if He were to make the mute and condemning them out of hand as He says in Rom 9:19-21.
Not if you believe scriptureIf you condition your salvation on something you did, its works salvation.
If you believe that you have a problem with scriptureIf you condition salvation on your act of faith, or believing, its a works based salvation, apostacy
Shall we heed what God says in his word or what man says in his lexicon.Is believing something done ? Look at the word for work,ergon:
work, task, employment; a deed, action; that which is wrought or made, a work.
érgon (from ergō, "to work, accomplish") – a work or worker who accomplishes something. 2041 /érgon ("work") is a deed (action) that carries out (completes) an inner desire (intension, purpose).
I dont see the relation. Im saying if you condition your salvation with God or Justification before God on something you did, its works and apostacy from Grace Salvation.It sure is. As such you are at a lose to explain how it supports what you're claiming.
Again Paul refutes that contentionI dont see the relation. Im saying if you condition your salvation with God or Justification before God on something you did, its works and apostacy from Grace Salvation.
The word was in their heart, thats regeneration, they were saved. Man cannot obey God in his natural lost condition, hes not subject to God neither indeed can be Rom 8:7-8Yes, it was at the point when they were listening to Paul, but not when they first heard and obeyed the Gospel. Read the text of verse 10 again. “for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation.”. If you are honest with the text, and don’t read your preconceptions into it, you MUST admit that these actions, which you said man does, must precede the reception of salvation.
Oh yeah, you condition salvation on anything you do, thats works, and apostasy.Not if you believe scripture
Romans 4 (KJV 1900) — 1 What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found? 2 For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God. 3 For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness. 4 Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt. 5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
faith is called for, and it is not defined as works salvation
Should we not heed the word of God?
Is believing something done by the individual ? Yes or noShall we heed what God says in his word or what man says in his lexicon.
A lexicon cannot tell you what a word must mean only context can do that.
Faith is not works salvation for those who believe God's word
Paul teaches against salvation by works, and says its by grace.Again Paul refutes that contention
Romans 4:1–5 (ESV) — 1 What then shall we say was gained by Abraham, our forefather according to the flesh? 2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness.” 4 Now to the one who works, his wages are not counted as a gift but as his due. 5 And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness,
What was the basis of Abraham's justification?
Absolutely not. When looking at Scripture, we must understand that all Scripture is equal in its power, authority, and Holiness. That means that we cannot take one verse (John 3:16 for instance) and proclaim that it is complete in what is required to receive salvation unless it is the ONLY passage that talks about salvation. If any other passage talks about salvation from sin, then it too must be considered before we decide on our doctrine. Thus, John 3:16 has equal weight with Rom 10:9-10, which has equal weight with Mark 16:16, and Matt 28:19, and Acts 2:38, and Acts 3:19, and 1 Pet 3:21, and many others. And because of this, we see that belief, and repentance, and confession of Jesus as Lord, and baptism all lead to being saved; belief alone is not the only requirement.So what do you do with the verses which do not mention confession of which there are far more than which include confession
Do you just ignore or reject them, forget they exist?
There is not negative inference fallacy, because there are also passages that put baptism as the point at which salvation is received (conditioned upon the other things that lead to salvation).What do you do with passages that mention baptism but not confession
or confession but not baptism
you commit the fallacy of negative inference if you do so
the negative inference fallacy says if a proposition is true, it does not follow that a negative inference from that proposition is also true.
He who believes and is baptized will be saved
He who believes and confesses
Cannot falsify he who believes will be saved without falsifying many biblical texts
I can't tell you what you experienced, I wasn't there, and I am not God. I can only tell you what the Bible says. Now, I know many ministers who help the disciple out through asking the question, "Do you believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God?" Thus, a simple, "Yes." is all that is required to have "made the confession".So when I was born again in my military barracks, I don't recall making that confession. Not only that - about 2 weeks later I was baptized in water, and I don't recall making that confession there either. So you're telling me I was not saved, even though I believed He was my Lord in my heart?
In those cases, I blame the teacher for not knowing and teaching the truth. Does God make allowances for this? I don't know, I am not Him. I think He may, but I would not risk your salvation or my own on it. I would teach what Scripture teaches, that one must confess verbally and publicly that Jesus is Lord.Also, what does a person do who believes in his heart, but he is not instructed to say "Jesus is Lord"? That is what happened to me and I'm sure thousands of others.
The thief on the cross is not relevant to the discussion of New Testament salvation. He was promised paradise by Jesus before Jesus died. Jesus had the power and authority to forgive sin (Matt 9:6). And so, He was perfectly within His rights and power to forgive the thief without any other sign of faith than he had already given. By the way, the thief did recognize Jesus' authority when he said, "Remember me when you come into your Kingdom (or Kingship)."What about the thief on the cross? Obviously, he could not get baptized, but he could speak, but he did NOT say "Jesus is Lord"? Did Jesus tell him to say "Jesus is Lord"? Did he believe in his heart?
In many translations Acts 8:37 is cut out. But in some, the verse reads, "If you believe with all your heart, you may.” And he answered and said, “I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God."Why did Philip NOT tell the Ethiopian eunuch to say "Jesus is Lord"? So I guess he was lost?
We don't know what all he told them, because there is a lot that he said that is not recorded (Acts 2:40).Peter didn't tell the 3,000 to say "Jesus is Lord". So they were lost?
There is a lot that was done that was not recorded. Scripture is not a detailed accounting of everything that was done. It is not a novel.Nor did he tell Cornelius and his household to say "Jesus is Lord". So I guess they were all lost?
Ananias told Paul to be baptized, "calling on the name of the Lord".Ananias didn't tell Paul to say "Jesus is Lord". So Paul actually wasn't saved, even though he was baptized? Even after his baptism, he was not instructed to confess "Jesus is Lord".
See response above.Peter, in his second recorded sermon in Acts 3:11-26, did not instruct them to say "Jesus is Lord", so they must be lost too?
You are taking passages out of context, twisting what they mean when taken in proper context, and applying them in a manner that is neither Biblical nor correct. Just as Satan did when he tempted Jesus saying, "If You are the Son of God, throw Yourself down; for it is written:The word was in their heart, thats regeneration, they were saved. Man cannot obey God in his natural lost condition, hes not subject to God neither indeed can be Rom 8:7-8
7 Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be.
8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God.
That word subject in Vs 7 is the greek word ὑποτάσσω:
- to arrange under, to subordinate
- to subject, put in subjection
- to subject one's self, obey
- to submit to one's control
- to yield to one's admonition or advice
- to obey, be subject
The unregenerate cant obey God friend, he has the nature of disobedience Eph 2:2-3
2 Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience:
3 Among whom also we all had our conversation in times past in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the mind; and were by nature the children of wrath, even as others.
Oh no, the unregenerate cant obey God, and Gods Gospel is to be obeyed Rom 10:16You are taking passages out of context, twisting what they mean when taken in proper context, and applying them in a manner that is neither Biblical nor correct. Just as Satan did when he tempted Jesus saying, "If You are the Son of God, throw Yourself down; for it is written:
‘He will give His angels orders concerning You’;
and
‘On their hands they will lift You up,
So that You do not strike Your foot against a stone.’"
Yes, these passages are Scripture, but they are taken out of context and are not rightly used by Satan, just as you are not rightly using the Scriptures you are citing.
But you can look at each verse and say it is true.Absolutely not. When looking at Scripture, we must understand that all Scripture is equal in its power, authority, and Holiness. That means that we cannot take one verse (John 3:16 for instance) and proclaim that it is complete in what is required to receive salvation unless it is the ONLY passage that talks about salvation. If any other passage talks about salvation from sin, then it too must be considered before we decide on our doctrine. Thus, John 3:16 has equal weight with Rom 10:9-10, which has equal weight with Mark 16:16, and Matt 28:19, and Acts 2:38, and Acts 3:19, and 1 Pet 3:21, and many others. And because of this, we see that belief, and repentance, and confession of Jesus as Lord, and baptism all lead to being saved; belief alone is not the only requirement.
There is not negative inference fallacy, because there are also passages that put baptism as the point at which salvation is received (conditioned upon the other things that lead to salvation).
Col 2:11-14 says that it is during baptism that the Holy Spirit cuts our sin from us and unites us with Christ's death and resurrection.
Rom 6:1-4 makes a very similar connection between baptism and becoming a new creation.
Jesus said in John 3:5, that if you are not born of water and the Spirit then you cannot enter the Kingdom of God (the Church). Here He makes the negative (not baptized equals not saved) true.
Indeed he does and he teaches faith is not works salvation.Paul teaches against salvation by works, and says its by grace.
So if you condition salvation on something you do, you believe contrary to Pauls doctrine.Indeed he does and he teaches faith is not works salvation.
And that faith establishes that it by grace
Romans 4:16 (ESV) — 16 That is why it depends on faith, in order that the promise may rest on grace and be guaranteed to all his offspring—not only to the adherent of the law but also to the one who shares the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all,
Um faith is not about what you do but what he did.So if you condition salvation on something you do, you believe contrary to Pauls doctrine.