Why does God permit evil?

Obadiah

Well-known member
So the world obviously contains a great deal of evil. Now the theological discussion often begins with a question. If God is as benevolent as Christian theists claim, He must be just as appalled as we are at all this evil. But if He is also as powerful as they claim, then presumably He is in a position to do something about it. So why does He permit it? Why doesn’t He arrange things so that these evils don’t occur? That should have been easy enough for one as powerful as He. As Hume puts it:

Is he willing to prevent evil, but not able? Then he is impotent. Is he able, but not willing? Then he is malevolent. Is he both able and willing? Whence then is evil?

And...

Why is there any misery at all in the world? Not by chance, surely. From some cause, then. It is from the intention of the deity? But he is perfectly benevolent. Is it contrary to his intention? But he is almighty. Nothing can shake the solidity of this reasoning, so short, so clear, so decisive.…

So Hume insists on this question: if God is perfectly benevolent and also omnipotent, or almighty, why is there any evil in the world? Why does he permit it?

Now one reply would be to specify God’s reason for permitting evil or for creating a world that contained evil. (Perhaps evil is necessary, in some way, to the existence of good.) Such an answer to Hume’s question is sometimes called a theodicy. When a theist answers the question “Whence evil?” or “Why does God permit evil?” he is giving a theodicy. And, of course, a theist might like to have a theodicy, an answer to the question why God permits evil. He might want very badly to know why God permits evil in general or some particular evil—the death or suffering of someone close to him, or perhaps his own suffering.

But suppose none of the suggested theodicies is very satisfactory. Or suppose that the theist admits he just doesn’t know why God permits evil. What follows from that? Very little of interest. Why suppose that if God does have a good reason for permitting evil, the theist would be the first to know? Perhaps God has a good reason, but that reason is too complicated for us to understand. Or perhaps He has not revealed it for some other reason. The fact that the theist doesn’t know why God permits evil is, perhaps, an interesting fact about the theist, but by itself it shows little or nothing relevant to the rationality of belief in God. Much more is needed for the atheological argument even to get off the ground.

Perhaps we can see this as follows. The theist believes that God has a reason for permitting evil; he doesn’t know what that reason is. But why should that mean that his belief is improper or irrational? Take an analogy. I believe that there is a connection of some sort between Paul’s deciding to mow the lawn and the complex group of bodily movements involved in so doing. But what connection, exactly? Does his decision cause these bodily movements? If so, how? The decision may take place long before he so much as sets foot on the lawn. Is there an intermediary causal chain extending between the decision and the first of these movements? If so, what sorts of events make up this chain and how is the decision related, let’s say, to the first event in it? Does it have a first event? And there are whole series of bodily motions involved in mowing the lawn. Is his decision related in the same way to each of these motions?

Exactly what is the relation between his deciding to mow the lawn—which decision does not seem to be a bodily event at all—and his actually doing so? No one, I suspect, knows the answer to these questions. But does it follow that it is irrational or unreasonable to believe that this decision has something to do with that series of motions? Surely not. In the same way the theist’s not knowing why God permits evil does not by itself show that he is irrational in thinking that God does indeed have a reason.

To make out his case, therefore, the theologian cannot rest content with asking embarrassing questions to which the theist does not know the answer. He must do more—he might try, for example, to show that it is impossible or anyhow unlikely that God should have a reason for permitting evil. Many philosophers—for example, some of the French Encyclopedists, J. S. Mill, F. H. Bradley, and many others—have claimed that there is a contradiction involved in asserting, as the theist does, that God is perfectly good, omnipotent (i.e., all-powerful), and omniscient (i.e., all-knowing) on the one hand, and, on the other, that there is evil.


Alvin Plantinga, God, Freedom, and Evil
 
ImCo:
Since the Book of the revelation of GOD's work with mankind ends with the marriage of the Lamb to the Saints, it is obvious that the reason for our Creation was to be a Bride for YHWH, to share the love and communion of a true, holy, loving marriage with HIM, entering into the love that the Trinity shares between themselves.

And since a true marriage based upon love cannot be forced upon the potential Bride, we had to choose to accept HIS wedding proposal by our own free will. This of course also made it an absolute necessity that we also be able to choose to repudiate HIM as a husband or as GOD, thus creating evil within HIS creation.

We know from Job 38:7 that ALL the sons of GOD saw the creation of the physical world and sang HIS raises, implying our existence before the creation of the earth, and that some time after the earth was created, that all sinners were flung into the earth, into Sheol inside the earth Rev. 12:4-9.

We know from Matt 13:36-39 that these sinners are of two kinds, those people who accepted GOD's claims as truth and became the people of HIS kingdom who later sinned, and those people who never put their faith in HIS claims and so became the eternally evil people of the evil one. These two groups are sown into mankind by HIS will.

Matt 13:27-30 tell us that the judgement upon the eternally evil ones had to be postponed because the sins of HIS sheep, the people of HIS kingdom, made them liable to be pulled up with the reprobate demons...

Matt 13:27 The owner’s servants came to him and said, ‘Sir, didn’t you sow good seed in your field? Where then did the weeds come from?’ 28 ‘An enemy did this,’ he replied. [a reference to the explanation of this parable, ie, no more metaphor, in verses 36-39]

So the servants asked him, ‘Do you want us to go and pull them up?’[to bring the judgement upon them?] 29 ‘NO!’ he said, [postpone the judgement because...] ‘if you pull the weeds now, you might uproot the wheat with them. 30 Let both grow together until the harvest. The time of the harvest is the time of the maturity of the wheat and the only maturity that saves a sinner from the judgment is a mature holiness!

Thus the sins of HIS elect people, those who put their faith in HIM, separated them from the holy elect and are the cause of the continued suffering of mankind on this earth.

That is how sin came into being and that is how and why sin came to the earth and what will precipitate the end by the ending of the postponement of the judgement day when the last of the sinful people of HIS kingdom repents and is perfectly sanctified.
 
There is evil in the universe because that is the result of creating the universe since there is only ONE God, there is NONE like Him, and He gives His glory to NO ONE.
And the only way He could have created the sinful, evil universe is by the offering of the lamb from [before] the foundation (creation) or the world/universe - although it applies to people, specifically, His people.
 
There is evil in the universe because that is the result of creating the universe since there is only ONE God,

Satan is the "god of this world".

Satan said "i will exalt MY THRONE"....

See that?

His is down here, and so, as Father of Evil, those who are of Him, commit it.

Evil exist, because He is the The Father of it, or as Jesus said..."the father of lies, and a murderer from the beginning".

"from the beginning"" = of what... from the beginning of "iniquity was found in Him".
 
YHWH, our GOD, is NOT a moral duality but is rather a moral singularity of goodness from which no evil nor evil person can come.
 
Satan is the "god of this world".
If you mean Satan is Lucifer well, the angels that sinned are locked up.

4 For if God spared not the angels that sinned, but cast them down to hell, and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved unto judgment; 2 Peter 2:4.

Jude said the same thing.

6 And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day. Jude 1:6.

So did Isaiah.

15 Yet thou shalt be brought down to hell, to the sides of the pit. Isaiah 14:15.

"Satan" merely means "adversary." And "Satan" is also used to identify men. So, this theology that Satan is Lucifer falls short especially when the word is used to describe men. So, when you say "Satan" is the "god of this world" it doesn't mean Lucifer because the angels that sinned were locked up BEFORE God created man. Man is the god of this world, and it can apply to disobedient, self-willed Christians too.
I don't believe in dualism, the teaching that Lucifer and his fellow angels are loose on the planet doing whatever they want - which isn't true.
Satan said "i will exalt MY THRONE"....
Lucifer didn't have a throne. There is nothing in Scripture that says such a thing, only in the vanity of the minds of ignorant men who lean on their own understanding.
See that?
His is down here, and so, as Father of Evil, those who are of Him, commit it.
Lucifer is not the father of evil. God is. Everything in creation came to existence because of God.

5 I am the LORD, and there is none else,
There is no God beside me:
I girded thee, though thou hast not known me:
6 That they may know from the rising of the sun, and from the west,
That there is none beside me.
I am the LORD, and there is none else.
7 I form the light, and create darkness:
I make peace, and create evil:
I the LORD do all these things.
Isaiah 45:5–7.

The Hebrew word for evil is 'ra. It is a moral evil. It doesn't mean calamity in this verse because there is no morality in calamity. Moral evil applies to moral men. It doesn't apply to inanimate things.
Now look at verse 7. God says, "I create evil."
Are you going to let the Word of God tell you what to believe, or will you tell the Word of God what to say?
Evil exist, because He is the The Father of it, or as Jesus said..."the father of lies, and a murderer from the beginning".
Evil exists because God created man and man was created sinful. Adam did not possess any nature or deific attributes of God. Adam wasn't sinless, only God is. Adam wasn't holy, because only God is. God did not reduplicate Himself in Adam. Adam and the woman were sinners even before they ate from the tree. So, by being sinners before they ate from the tree then the false teaching of a "Fall" is a lie. I've already proved the "fall" is a lie.
"from the beginning"" = of what... from the beginning of "iniquity was found in Him".
The same was with the angels. They were not created sinless or holy. Sin does not come from sin; less and holy. Sin comes from sinners. This is not hard to understand. The last Adam proved it. He was holy, He was sinless, He was righteous, and He did not sin. Sin comes from sinners.

13 As saith the proverb of the ancients, Wickedness proceedeth from the wicked: 1 Sam. 24:13.

Sin comes from sinners as wickedness comes from the wicked.
 
If you mean Satan is Lucifer well, the angels that sinned are locked up.

When Jesus cast out demons, ...
Find out what that is... as they are not "Locked up".

Evil exists because God created man and man was created sinful.

God did not create man as "sinful", He created may in spiritual union with Himself, and when the Devil tempted man/woman, and they made the decision, then that decision became their iniquity, and the "fall of Man".
 
When Jesus cast out demons, ...
Find out what that is... as they are not "Locked up".
You win the reward for your response which comes out of textbook Gentile theology. Your reply reminded me how much Constantinian Gentile garbage I used to believe until the LORD showed me His truth from Scripture which caused me to rethink a lot of things I used to believe prior to these last couple of years. When I became a man, I put away childish things like your reply that directly contradicts Scripture. Peter says the angels that sinned are locked up" but instead of allow Scripture dictate what you are supposed to believe you refuse to allow it to do what it was sent out to do to continue to hold to what you believe - even when Scripture destroys what you believe.

Your other textbook response to what I'm going to say next proves that. Ready?

Old Covenant Israel never dealt with "demons" or "devils" of "Satan" in their history the way the Gentile theology of the New Covenant Scripture interpretation (Jewish Church Age) the way Gentiles interpret such verses and deal with them today. They will say that "demonic" activity increased when the Son of God showed up. Typical textbook Gentile heresy response. But it is true. Why aren't there passages in the OT of the children of Israel dealing with "demons" and "devils" and "Satan" in their history (OT Scripture) the way the Gentile church does today? But the OT is silent. There is no Scripture of Abraham, Isaac, or Jacob or the twelve tribes dealing with "fallen angels" the way the New Covenant Scriptures are interpreted to teach about "demonology" today. Oh, there are "goat-demons" in the OT, but these are not "fallen angels."

I used to believe what you do about angels - and this would be a worthy post - but the Lord put 2 Peter 2:4 in front of me that says the "angels that sinned are locked up" which caused me to rethink "demons," and "devils" and "fallen angels." And I have.
God did not create man as "sinful",
And yet man sinned in the Garden and beyond. Man was created with a sinful nature, and do you want to know why?
Because there is ONE God, there is NONE like Him, and He gives His glory (of which sinlessness and holiness to name two) to NO ONE.
If the above is true, and it is, then man was created "fallen short of the glory of God." It's that simple.
The ONLY Person that can stand before God blameless is the Son, who is compared to the first Adam is from above, holy, righteous, sinless, etc. In 1 Corinthians 15 Saul makes a distinction from that which is from above (Christ and His sinlessness), and Adam who is of the earth earthy, from below, and possess none of the glory of God.
He created may in spiritual union with Himself,
How can there be "spiritual union" without the Holy Spirit? "Spiritual union" occurs when a person becomes saved/born-again and the believer in THEN joined with Christ.
and when the Devil tempted man/woman, and they made the decision, then that decision became their iniquity, and the "fall of Man".
Sin comes from sinner as wickedness comes from the wicked.

13 As saith the proverb of the ancients, Wickedness proceedeth from the wicked: 1 Sam. 24:13.

The bible teaches only ONE way to be tempted: FROM WITHIN.

14 But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed. James 1:14.

This also applies to Jesus in the desert being tempted. It came from within Him.

And the so-called "Fall of man" is a lie. Adam and the woman were already sinners before they ate from the forbidden tree.

6 Add thou not unto his words,
Lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.
Prov. 30:6.

Sin comes from sinner; it does not come from Holy. When Adam and the woman added to God's word "neither shall ye touch it" they showed themselves as liars and lying is a sin. So, if they sinned before eating from the tree, then the "Fall of man" is a lie. More ADDING to God's Word.
 
Sin comes from sinner; it does not come from Holy.
Sin cannot come from holy but it can come from innocence and a free will.

Because there is ONE God, there is NONE like Him, and He gives His glory (of which sinlessness and holiness to name two) to NO ONE.
If the above is true, and it is, then man was created "fallen short of the glory of God." It's that simple.
Then this in fact means that sin DOES come from holy because holy cannot/will not recreate itself so HE created sinful beings which is anathema.

HE may not recreate HIMself but HE certainly can and did create an innocent creation with a free will.
 
So the world obviously contains a great deal of evil. Now the theological discussion often begins with a question. If God is as benevolent as Christian theists claim, He must be just as appalled as we are at all this evil. But if He is also as powerful as they claim, then presumably He is in a position to do something about it. So why does He permit it?
Really not a hard question to answer. He's given man free will and he's allowed a period (we can think of it as being about 6000 years or so) as a demonstration time. It's not that God longed for there to be such a time but to make this allowance in all future eras will serve as a reminder God did allow independence from him show and demonstrate that without him everything turns out to be a mess. If he didn't allow this time spirit beings might accuse him of never have even allowed a time to show what they could do without him.

Why doesn’t He arrange things so that these evils don’t occur? That should have been easy enough for one as powerful as He.
Easy maybe but not wise.
Is he willing to prevent evil, but not able?
Of course he's able.
Is he able, but not willing? Then he is malevolent.
Of course you're not in the position to see what would entail if he just forced things. A continual nagging question might stay in the universe that maybe sin (independence from God) maybe it could produce good things.
Why is there any misery at all in the world?
Because spirit beings have chosen a way outside of God
Not by chance, surely.
Well not by chance. Other beings choose to bring misery forth.
But he is perfectly benevolent. Is it contrary to his intention?
He intended mankind live in joy, love and peace. Always has.
So Hume insists on this question: if God is perfectly benevolent and also omnipotent, or almighty, why is there any evil in the world? Why does he permit it?
As I said just answered above.
(Perhaps evil is necessary, in some way, to the existence of good.)
Evil was never necessary .

Perhaps God has a good reason, but that reason is too complicated for us to understand.
Not really. I believe I've just shared it.

 
Really not a hard question to answer. He's given man free will and he's allowed a period (we can think of it as being about 6000 years or so) as a demonstration time. It's not that God longed for there to be such a time but to make this allowance in all future eras will serve as a reminder God did allow independence from him show and demonstrate that without him everything turns out to be a mess. If he didn't allow this time spirit beings might accuse him of never have even allowed a time to show what they could do without him.


Easy maybe but not wise.

Of course he's able.

Of course you're not in the position to see what would entail if he just forced things. A continual nagging question might stay in the universe that maybe sin (independence from God) maybe it could produce good things.

Because spirit beings have chosen a way outside of God

Well not by chance. Other beings choose to bring misery forth.

He intended mankind live in joy, love and peace. Always has.

As I said just answered above.

Evil was never necessary .


Not really. I believe I've just shared it.
Good answer. Righteousness peace and joy in the Holy Ghost that's the kingdom of God.
 
So the world obviously contains a great deal of evil. Now the theological discussion often begins with a question. If God is as benevolent as Christian theists claim, He must be just as appalled as we are at all this evil. But if He is also as powerful as they claim, then presumably He is in a position to do something about it. So why does He permit it? Why doesn’t He arrange things so that these evils don’t occur? That should have been easy enough for one as powerful as He. As Hume puts it:

Is he willing to prevent evil, but not able? Then he is impotent. Is he able, but not willing? Then he is malevolent. Is he both able and willing? Whence then is evil?

And...

Why is there any misery at all in the world? Not by chance, surely. From some cause, then. It is from the intention of the deity? But he is perfectly benevolent. Is it contrary to his intention? But he is almighty. Nothing can shake the solidity of this reasoning, so short, so clear, so decisive.…

So Hume insists on this question: if God is perfectly benevolent and also omnipotent, or almighty, why is there any evil in the world? Why does he permit it?

Now one reply would be to specify God’s reason for permitting evil or for creating a world that contained evil. (Perhaps evil is necessary, in some way, to the existence of good.) Such an answer to Hume’s question is sometimes called a theodicy. When a theist answers the question “Whence evil?” or “Why does God permit evil?” he is giving a theodicy. And, of course, a theist might like to have a theodicy, an answer to the question why God permits evil. He might want very badly to know why God permits evil in general or some particular evil—the death or suffering of someone close to him, or perhaps his own suffering.

But suppose none of the suggested theodicies is very satisfactory. Or suppose that the theist admits he just doesn’t know why God permits evil. What follows from that? Very little of interest. Why suppose that if God does have a good reason for permitting evil, the theist would be the first to know? Perhaps God has a good reason, but that reason is too complicated for us to understand. Or perhaps He has not revealed it for some other reason. The fact that the theist doesn’t know why God permits evil is, perhaps, an interesting fact about the theist, but by itself it shows little or nothing relevant to the rationality of belief in God. Much more is needed for the atheological argument even to get off the ground.

Perhaps we can see this as follows. The theist believes that God has a reason for permitting evil; he doesn’t know what that reason is. But why should that mean that his belief is improper or irrational? Take an analogy. I believe that there is a connection of some sort between Paul’s deciding to mow the lawn and the complex group of bodily movements involved in so doing. But what connection, exactly? Does his decision cause these bodily movements? If so, how? The decision may take place long before he so much as sets foot on the lawn. Is there an intermediary causal chain extending between the decision and the first of these movements? If so, what sorts of events make up this chain and how is the decision related, let’s say, to the first event in it? Does it have a first event? And there are whole series of bodily motions involved in mowing the lawn. Is his decision related in the same way to each of these motions?

Exactly what is the relation between his deciding to mow the lawn—which decision does not seem to be a bodily event at all—and his actually doing so? No one, I suspect, knows the answer to these questions. But does it follow that it is irrational or unreasonable to believe that this decision has something to do with that series of motions? Surely not. In the same way the theist’s not knowing why God permits evil does not by itself show that he is irrational in thinking that God does indeed have a reason.

To make out his case, therefore, the theologian cannot rest content with asking embarrassing questions to which the theist does not know the answer. He must do more—he might try, for example, to show that it is impossible or anyhow unlikely that God should have a reason for permitting evil. Many philosophers—for example, some of the French Encyclopedists, J. S. Mill, F. H. Bradley, and many others—have claimed that there is a contradiction involved in asserting, as the theist does, that God is perfectly good, omnipotent (i.e., all-powerful), and omniscient (i.e., all-knowing) on the one hand, and, on the other, that there is evil.


Alvin Plantinga, God, Freedom, and Evil
Good questions raised here, shall we go into the sphere of philosophical reasoning?
 
The concept that evil is the absence of good is known as the privation theory of evil. According to this theological and philosophical doctrine, evil lacks substance and should not be thought of as an independent entity. Instead, evil is better understood as the absence or privation of good. In other words, everything that exists is fundamentally good, and evil arises when there is a lack of that inherent goodness1.

This perspective contrasts with the idea that evil is a distinct force or entity. Rather, it suggests that evil emerges when something falls short of the goodness it should possess. For instance, cruelty, suffering, and wrongdoing can be seen as deviations from the ideal state of goodness.

The privation theory of evil has historical roots in ancient Greek and Hellenistic philosophy. Although Plato never explicitly stated this doctrine, it was developed by the Neoplatonist philosopher Plotinus. Plotinus described evil as a form of non-being, emphasizing that it lacks true existence. Within this non-being, all sense-objects and their passive modifications are included, representing various aspects of evil1.

So, when we encounter evil, we can view it as a deficiency—a lack of the inherent goodness that should be present. This perspective invites us to consider how we can cultivate and promote goodness in our actions and choices.

More insight:

 
The concept that evil is the absence of good is known as the privation theory of evil. According to this theological and philosophical doctrine, evil lacks substance and should not be thought of as an independent entity. Instead, evil is better understood as the absence or privation of good. In other words, everything that exists is fundamentally good, and evil arises when there is a lack of that inherent goodness1.

This perspective contrasts with the idea that evil is a distinct force or entity. Rather, it suggests that evil emerges when something falls short of the goodness it should possess. For instance, cruelty, suffering, and wrongdoing can be seen as deviations from the ideal state of goodness.

The privation theory of evil has historical roots in ancient Greek and Hellenistic philosophy. Although Plato never explicitly stated this doctrine, it was developed by the Neoplatonist philosopher Plotinus. Plotinus described evil as a form of non-being, emphasizing that it lacks true existence. Within this non-being, all sense-objects and their passive modifications are included, representing various aspects of evil1.

So, when we encounter evil, we can view it as a deficiency—a lack of the inherent goodness that should be present. This perspective invites us to consider how we can cultivate and promote goodness in our actions and choices.

More insight:

There are some good info on Got Questions @Clifford but as always, we need to eat the chicken and spit out the bones and that includes what I share brother.
 
Sin cannot come from holy but it can come from innocence and a free will.
Genuine Constantinian Gentile textbook answer. Your reply makes no sense. I am reminded of that joke-stumper that asks, "if whale oil comes from whales, and garlic oil comes from garlics, where does baby oil come from?" Someone stupid enough just might say, "babies."
Sin does not come from innocence. Not when men have a sin nature, which I'm going to guess you're going to say Adam got as a result of his sin against God and eating from the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil," which would be wrong because it's not a tree that makes one a sinner or evil but gives the KNOWLEDGE of Good and Evil. And no doubt this act of sin is traditionally called the "Fall of man," right? Well, just as Jesus had to deal with religious leaders that elevated the traditions of the elders above the Hebrew Scriptures of Law, Psalms, and Prophets, so too, does your traditions of the thieving Gentiles falls short of the glory of God. Adam and the woman were already sinners before they ate from the tree. Thus, they disobeyed God and sinned because they were sinners.

So, tell me then, if whales oil comes from whales, and garlic oil comes from garlics, where does sin in man come from?
Then this in fact means that sin DOES come from holy because holy cannot/will not recreate itself so HE created sinful beings which is anathema.
Only God has creative abilities. Angels do not. Do you agree?
And holy cannot create anything. Where do you get the false belief, it does?
IF there is only ONE God, there is NONE like Him, and He gives His glory (holiness, sinlessness, omnipresence, etc.), to NO ONE, then anything or anyone God creates will be created fallen short of His glory since God does not reduplicate or copy or give His glory to NO ONE. The word for that is sin.
Therefore, man was created fallen short of the glory of God. The word for that is sin.

Then there is this:

7 I form the light, and create darkness:
I make peace, and create evil:
I the LORD do all these things.
Isaiah 45:7.

The word "evil" is 'moral' evil. And since you're going to give me the Constantinian Gentile textbook reply that the word means "calamity" then I ask: How can an inanimate thing be a moral evil? Regardless, everything in God's creation is the result of God. If there was no creation, then evil would not create itself. It wouldn't even exist. But I don't think you've thought about these things. If there's planets, then God created them. If there is oxygen, then God created it. If there's evil, then God created it. Evil and sin came with the territory when God created the heaven, earth, and man. And He was able to proceed with creation because in the Heavenly Tabernacle God was busy offering sacrifice of a lamb slain from [before] the foundation (creation) of the world which allowed God to create a sinful, evil man.
HE may not recreate HIMself but HE certainly can and did create an innocent creation with a free will.
Man, nor angel have free will. It's an illusion. You may be able to choose chocolate or vanilla in this life if both are available, but how can a natural man choose anything spiritual of the spirit realm?
Answer: He can't.
Do you actually believe a man can choose Jesus or to be born again and saved? Can a man command the Holy Spirit to baptize that man in the Holy Spirit and tell Him where to place him in the Body of Christ, or which spiritual gifts he will have or choose to have, what calling of God he can choose to have?
Try doing some original thinking on these things and stop with the Constantinian Gentile textbook responses. It shows you don't use the grey matter, and every true born of God is commanded to use the grey matter and cogitate about the things of God and not just regurgitate what you read in a book.
 
There is no evil in God's realm...

but this current evil 'good and evil' realm is not God's realm. He did not create this earth or body
 
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