If that's the reality then why did 20 Greek scholars put a god at John 1:1 in history? Or is it just bias trinity Greek scholars who are misleading you?
What do JW's Believe ?
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synergy
Active Member
All NWT Translators had little to no understanding of Greek. Fredrick W. Franz's formal training was minimal and incomplete. The other members had little to no formal training in Koine Greek or Biblical Hebrew. There is no evidence that they were professional linguists or had recognized scholarly credentials in ancient languages. There is bias in their translation choices to reflect Jehovah’s Witness doctrines.
Those are the criminals that will have to answer for what they did.
When the apostles spoke in tongues to the foreigners who were there, never spoke a word of those foreign languages prior to that day. So your point is meaningless. God knows every language. He shows truth through the teachers Jesus appoints.
synergy
Active Member
Fredrick Franz was no Apostle and neither were his partners in crime. Fredrick Franz was tried in court and he admitted that he could not translate Hebrew. Why you would even compare Fredrick to an Apostle is beyond me which speaks of a disturbed cult mind.
Fred Franz on Trial
pocketanswers.net
TibiasDad
Active Member
Every verse that speak of God/god. You just have to see what case it is in in any particular case.
Then I guess we know my correction of your assertions is correct!
All religions and cultures have a supreme being; generally speaking, these adherents place their version of God above all other versions. In the end, adherents place one to whom you give precedence at the top of the heap, while all others are considered lesser.
Christianity holds that Satan is the one whom the non-Christian world obeys and gives precedence to. (Even though the world doesn’t think of it in that way. They just want to do things in their own way instead of God’s.)
But Paul teaches that these other “gods” are not really existent.
4So then, about eating food sacrificed to idols: We know that “An idol is nothing at all in the world” and that “There is no God but one.” 5For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as indeed there are many “gods” and many “lords”), 6yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live.
If you have taken Koine Greek you would/should know this. If the article is used, it always is translated God. But it is not true that if the article is absent it must always be a lower case g.
There are many reasons to not use the article even though the intent is to refer to God. One such example is John 1:1.
Θεόν is the accusative case, and, as I’ve said before, the accusative doesn’t have to have the article.
These are other examples of God without the article:
Matt 5:9
Mat 6:24
Luke 1:35, 76-78
John 1:6, 12, 13, 18
Rom 1:7, 17
So there are several examples of θεός without the article in scripture.
Doug
TibiasDad
Active Member
How many did not translate it “a god”? Who are the 20 who did? What are their credentials?
You do not know the nature of academic scholarship; they don’t say something because that’s just their bias. Honest scholars are very detailed in their reasons for their conclusions, and they will debate ferociously over the minutiae of information to support their conclusions.
Moreover, the NWT is notorious for historically having no Greek or Hebrew language experts in their translation department. If it is not vigorously scholarly, then it can only be bias that determines the result.
Doug
Do you abandon now your previous explanation that the "theos" refer to "a god"?
I didn't say he was an apostle-He was one of these-Matt 24:45= the ones Jesus appoints here in these last days.
The true God is spoken of alone in every example you gave, thus all know the true God is being spoken of--But the exceptions = John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4--where 2 are called God or god. The whole reason they are called a different Greek word= God and god in both spots= reality.
Trinity believers=bias, translated capitol G God to the word at John 1:1-- To do it correctly=god exposes all those religions as false.
The true God is called-Theos many times in the NT= when he is the only one being called God in that paragraph. When 2 beings are called God or god in a paragraph=John 1:1-2Cor 4:4--The true God is called Ton Theon= God and the other 2 are called Theos=god.=100% fact. Trinity scholars know its fact. They don't want to give up the free billions of dollars handed to them year after year.
TibiasDad
Active Member
It’s not a different Greek word…you’ve been told what it is but are either ignoring the information or you cannot comprehend what it means; neither are positive options.
Doug
Eternally-Grateful
Active Member
Any can look it up in Greek, one word ends in a g like character--one ends in a v like character in the Greek language= 2 different words.
That is what your second line reads at John 1:1 in simple English--And the God( Word) was with God) if the Word is God--small g god is NOT calling that one God, it means-has godlike qualities.
TibiasDad
Active Member
Same word, same meaning, two different cases! (Cases define the part of speech the word is employed as in the sentence.) When you learn the Greek alphabet, maybe then we can be on the same page and have conversation.
Doug
Yes, I understand your explanation but you don’t understand or you just don’t check 1John 5:20.
In John 1:1 two are being mentioned, Theon refer to the Father and Theos refer to Jesus (a god to you).
Now in 1John 5:20 two are being mentioned Theon refer to the Father and Theos refer to Jesus (a god to you).
The one called as true God and eternal life is the Theos (a god to you)
Now the question is, who got it wrong? Is it the Bible text or you?
TibiasDad
Active Member
God is a state of being, like being human; it defines what we are in nature.
“In the beginning”… that is the point that time and creation began;
“was”… past tense state of being verb predicated on the point of reference given, namely “in the beginning”. In short, “In the beginning” the Word already “was”, ie pre-existed that point of time. This means the Word is eternal in nature. He is not part of the creation occurring “in the beginning”.
“the Word” The pre-incarnate identity of Jesus.
“and the Word was” existing at the point of the beginning…
“was with God” The Word is a person who is with another person/the Father whose nature of being is God/the ultimate divine type of being.
Therefore, since the Word existed with God the Father prior to the beginning of time, “the Word was”, at the point of the beginning, necessarily “God” (capital Theta), because only God existed before time began. You cannot be existing in the beginning and not be God!
And again, “You are my witnesses,” declares the LORD, “and my servant whom I have chosen, so that you may know and believe me and understand that I am he. Before me no god was formed, nor will there be one after me.” (Isa 53:10)
Yahweh says that “no god was formed before” him, nor were any formed “after” him. Since God is eternal, it is impossible that a “god” (lower case g) could not have ever existed, therefore, the Word could not have been “a god”, because “gods” (lower case) have not, do not, and cannot ever exist according to Yahweh!
Doug
Actually at both spots the true God is called Ton Theon= THE GOD--both others are called Theos=god when in the same paragraph with Ton Theon--the other 2 were not called The God. The Word would have been called the same as the true God if he was being called God capitol G.
You--The true one is being called God, not Jesus at 1 John.
