Israel-NEVER served a trinity God while serving the Abrahamic God=100% fact.It is a plural form of the word. I do not dispute the meaning.
Doug
Israel-NEVER served a trinity God while serving the Abrahamic God=100% fact.It is a plural form of the word. I do not dispute the meaning.
Doug
You will hate to be shown that truth by God when its to late. In Ezekial about 20x God stated about then and these last days= They will have to know i am Jehovah--see no we.Always learning but never able to come to the truth… [sigh]
Exactly there is no other God( capitol G ) besides Jehovah. Small g god = has godlike qualities.You should know better “…Before me no god was formed, nor will there be one after me.” Isa 53:10
Doug
The true one is being called God, not Jesus.How about 1John 5:20? Did you notice that the “theos” refer to Jesus (a god to you) as in the last phrase of the Bible text said is the “true God and eternal life?
As typical, you miss the point; you say that Jesus is “a god”, but Jehovah says there are no such “gods” in existence.Exactly there is no other God( capitol G ) besides Jehovah. Small g god = has godlike qualities.
Not that they were made aware of, but the NT reveals the fullness of the nature of the Godhead. The Spirit is often mentioned in the OT, and the Son, is represented as “my Servant” (eg Isa 42:1)Israel-NEVER served a trinity God while serving the Abrahamic God=100% fact.
It’s like tossing truth right out the window. John would never refer to Jesus as a god as His disciple. That would be making Jesus an idolAs typical, you miss the point; you say that Jesus is “a god”, but Jehovah says there are no such “gods” in existence.
So there are no other options in John 1:1 for the predicate nominative but to be saying- “the Word was with God, and (literally) God was the Word.
Doug
Do you have Strong no. for this "Θεοῦ", cause I believe they are the same.θεον G2316 is not Θεοῦ; they are different cases.
Doug
Yes, God but this "Theos θεος" (a god) to you, was declared the true God in 1 John 5:20.The true one is being called God, not Jesus.
Do you have Strong no. for this "Θεοῦ", cause I believe they are the same.
θεός | θεοί |
θεοῦ | |
θεῷ | θεοῖς |
θεόν | θεούς |
θεέ |
No he did not. He said no other God capitol G.As typical, you miss the point; you say that Jesus is “a god”, but Jehovah says there are no such “gods” in existence.
So there are no other options in John 1:1 for the predicate nominative but to be saying- “the Word was with God, and (literally) God was the Word.
Doug
Here is the real son in the OT-Psalm 45:7--He has a God. Companions=angels.Not that they were made aware of, but the NT reveals the fullness of the nature of the Godhead. The Spirit is often mentioned in the OT, and the Son, is represented as “my Servant” (eg Isa 42:1)
Doug
When the true God is spoken of alone in a paragraph-Theos was used, but when spoken of with 2 God and god in a paragraph-Ton Theon was given to the true God and Theos for god.Yes, God but this "Theos θεος" (a god) to you, was declared the true God in 1 John 5:20.
Below was from your post#380. You are trapped by your own explanation, see your explanation again I colored blue, you even labelled it as FACT . How will you explain that the ("θεος " a god to you) is referred as the true God and eternal life in the last phrase of 1 John 5:20.
Do not just deny, kindly present evidence and explain.
"When the true God is spoken of alone in a paragraph-Theos was used, because all know its the true God being spoken of. But when 2 are called God and god in the same paragraph, the only way to show the difference = Ton Theon for the true- God and Theos for god. John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4--translating is the same both spots=Theos= god, Ton Theon = God=FACT"
I'll post again my evidence for your ready reference.
Hope to see yours not just denial.
1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161 that G3754 the G3588 son G5207 G3588 of God G2316 has come, G2240 and G2532 has given G1325 to us G1473 thought G1271 that G2443 we should know G1097 the one G3588 true; G228 and G2532 we are G1510.2.4 in G1722 the one G3588 true, G228 in G1722G3588 his son G5207 G1473 Jesus G* Christ. G5547 This one G3778 is G1510.2.3 the G3588 true G228 God, G2316 and G2532 the G3588 life G2222 eternal. G166
1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161 οτι G3754 ο G3588 υιος G5207 του G3588 θεου G2316 ηκει G2240 και G2532 δεδωκεν G1325 ημιν G1473 διανοιαν G1271 ινα G2443 γινωσκωμεν G1097 τον G3588 αληθινον G228 και G2532 εσμεν G1510.2.4 εν G1722 τω G3588 αληθινω G228 εν G1722 τω G3588 υιω αυτου G5207G1473 Ιησου G* χριστω G5547 ουτος G3778 εστιν G1510.2.3 ο G3588 αληθινος G228 θεος G2316 και G2532 η G3588 ζωη G2222 αιωνιος G166
You just keep repeating your explanation.When the true God is spoken of alone in a paragraph-Theos was used, but when spoken of with 2 God and god in a paragraph-Ton Theon was given to the true God and Theos for god.
Can you cite a respected and well known Greek authority or text that demonstrates the accuracy of your statement above? (Don’t worry; I’m not holding my breath!)When the true God is spoken of alone in a paragraph-Theos was used, but when spoken of with 2 God and god in a paragraph-Ton Theon was given to the true God and Theos for god.
May we know what verses that mentioned the four?Can you cite a respected and well known Greek authority or text that demonstrates the accuracy of your statement above? (Don’t worry; I’m not holding my breath!)
You are ignoring the very basic, 1st Semester level information about Greek declination of nouns.
Nouns have Case:
Nominative = the subject of the sentence or clause
Genitive = possession belonging to the noun
Dative = the noun is grammatically an indirect object
Accusative = the grammatical direct object.
Theos - Θεός is nominative.
Theou - Θεοῦ genitive.
TheO - Θεῷ is dative.
Theon - Θεόν is accusative.
The meaning is identical for all declinations.
To deny this is to throw out the rudimentary foundations of Greek syntax and grammar.
Doug
I think they all have same Strong#G2316.Masculine (2nd declension)
θεός θεοί θεοῦ θεῷ θεοῖς θεόν θεούς θεέ
[th]
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[th]
S
[/th][th]
P
[/th]
[th]
N
[/th]
[th]
G
[/th]
[th]
D
[/th]
[th]
A
[/th]
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V
[/th]
θεοῦ Is the Genetive case of θεός. Only
θεός and θεόν appear in John 1:1.
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος, καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος.
Doug
Gods written word is evidence over the twisting's of men. Explain to us all then Why at John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4 the true God is called Ton Theon and the Word and satan are called Theos, yet one was given God and one was given god when its the same exact word?The same word that is different from what the true God is called at both spots. And show us all the Greek to English translating rule that makes that 1 word different at both spots?You just keep repeating your explanation.
I believe you don’t even read my responses.
You are just ready to react without understanding my point. The point is “theos” been declared as “the true God and eternal life” in 1John 5:20.
You can reply with evidence or you just can’t.
I see your 4 Greek words. Then you can explain to all of us why Theos given to the Word and to satan ( John 1:1-2Cor 4:4) while the true God is called Ton Theon is translated God to one and god to the other. Show us the Greek to English rule that makes that possible. Since Ton Theon in both spots is the guaranteed meaning of capitol G GOD at both spots. Why is the Word not called Ton Theon at John 1:1 if he is being called God?Can you cite a respected and well known Greek authority or text that demonstrates the accuracy of your statement above? (Don’t worry; I’m not holding my breath!)
You are ignoring the very basic, 1st Semester level information about Greek declination of nouns.
Nouns have Case:
Nominative = the subject of the sentence or clause
Genitive = possession belonging to the noun
Dative = the noun is grammatically an indirect object
Accusative = the grammatical direct object.
Theos - Θεός is nominative.
Theou - Θεοῦ genitive.
TheO - Θεῷ is dative.
Theon - Θεόν is accusative.
The meaning is identical for all declinations.
To deny this is to throw out the rudimentary foundations of Greek syntax and grammar.
Doug
There is a difference between 2 Cor 4:4 and John 1:1. John 1:1 contains an uppercase Θεὸς for God and 2 Cor 4:4 contains a lowercase θεὸς for the god of this world. Do you see the difference? The decision to capitalize or not has already been made in Koine Greek. You must follow the Koine Greek, not the JW heretics script.I see your 4 Greek words. Then you can explain to all of us why Theos given to the Word and to satan ( John 1:1-2Cor 4:4) while the true God is called Ton Theon is translated God to one and god to the other. Show us the Greek to English rule that makes that possible. Since Ton Theon in both spots is the guaranteed meaning of capitol G GOD at both spots. Why is the Word not called Ton Theon at John 1:1 if he is being called God?