What do JW's Believe ?

Exactly there is no other God( capitol G ) besides Jehovah. Small g god = has godlike qualities.
As typical, you miss the point; you say that Jesus is “a god”, but Jehovah says there are no such “gods” in existence.

So there are no other options in John 1:1 for the predicate nominative but to be saying- “the Word was with God, and (literally) God was the Word.


Doug
 
Israel-NEVER served a trinity God while serving the Abrahamic God=100% fact.
Not that they were made aware of, but the NT reveals the fullness of the nature of the Godhead. The Spirit is often mentioned in the OT, and the Son, is represented as “my Servant” (eg Isa 42:1)

Doug
 
As typical, you miss the point; you say that Jesus is “a god”, but Jehovah says there are no such “gods” in existence.

So there are no other options in John 1:1 for the predicate nominative but to be saying- “the Word was with God, and (literally) God was the Word.


Doug
It’s like tossing truth right out the window. John would never refer to Jesus as a god as His disciple. That would be making Jesus an idol
 
The true one is being called God, not Jesus.
Yes, God but this "Theos θεος" (a god) to you, was declared the true God in 1 John 5:20.
Below was from your post#380. You are trapped by your own explanation, see your explanation again I colored blue, you even labelled it as FACT . How will you explain that the ("θεος  " a god to you) is referred as the true God and eternal life in the last phrase of 1 John 5:20.
Do not just deny, kindly present evidence and explain.

"When the true God is spoken of alone in a paragraph-Theos was used, because all know its the true God being spoken of. But when 2 are called God and god in the same paragraph, the only way to show the difference = Ton Theon for the true- God and Theos for god. John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4--translating is the same both spots=Theos= god, Ton Theon = God=FACT"

I'll post again my evidence for your ready reference.
Hope to see yours not just denial.

1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161  that G3754  the G3588  son G5207 G3588  of God G2316  has come, G2240  and G2532  has given G1325  to us G1473  thought G1271  that G2443  we should know G1097  the one G3588  true; G228  and G2532  we are G1510.2.4  in G1722  the one G3588  true, G228  in G1722G3588  his son G5207 G1473  Jesus G*  Christ. G5547  This one G3778  is G1510.2.3  the G3588true G228God,G2316and G2532  the G3588  life G2222  eternal. G166

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161  οτι G3754  ο G3588  υιος G5207  του G3588θεου G2316  ηκει G2240  και G2532  δεδωκεν G1325  ημιν G1473  διανοιαν G1271  ινα G2443  γινωσκωμεν G1097  τον G3588  αληθινον G228  και G2532  εσμεν G1510.2.4  εν G1722  τω G3588  αληθινω G228  εν G1722  τω G3588  υιω αυτου G5207G1473  Ιησου G*  χριστω G5547  ουτος G3778  εστιν G1510.2.3  ο G3588  αληθινος G228 θεοςG2316  και G2532  η G3588  ζωη G2222  αιωνιος G166
 
Do you have Strong no. for this "Θεοῦ", cause I believe they are the same.

Masculine (2nd declension)​

θεός
θεοί
θεοῦ
θεῷ
θεοῖς
θεόν
θεούς
θεέ
[th]
[/th]
[th]
S​
[/th][th]
P​
[/th]​
[th]
N​
[/th]​
[th]
G​
[/th]​
[th]
D​
[/th]​
[th]
A​
[/th]​
[th]
V​
[/th]​
θεοῦ Is the Genetive case of θεός. Only
θεός and θεόν appear in John 1:1.
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος, καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος.


Doug
 
As typical, you miss the point; you say that Jesus is “a god”, but Jehovah says there are no such “gods” in existence.

So there are no other options in John 1:1 for the predicate nominative but to be saying- “the Word was with God, and (literally) God was the Word.


Doug
No he did not. He said no other God capitol G.
 
Not that they were made aware of, but the NT reveals the fullness of the nature of the Godhead. The Spirit is often mentioned in the OT, and the Son, is represented as “my Servant” (eg Isa 42:1)

Doug
Here is the real son in the OT-Psalm 45:7--He has a God. Companions=angels.
 
Yes, God but this "Theos θεος" (a god) to you, was declared the true God in 1 John 5:20.
Below was from your post#380. You are trapped by your own explanation, see your explanation again I colored blue, you even labelled it as FACT . How will you explain that the ("θεος  " a god to you) is referred as the true God and eternal life in the last phrase of 1 John 5:20.
Do not just deny, kindly present evidence and explain.

"When the true God is spoken of alone in a paragraph-Theos was used, because all know its the true God being spoken of. But when 2 are called God and god in the same paragraph, the only way to show the difference = Ton Theon for the true- God and Theos for god. John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4--translating is the same both spots=Theos= god, Ton Theon = God=FACT"

I'll post again my evidence for your ready reference.
Hope to see yours not just denial.

1Jn 5:20 And we know G1492 G1161  that G3754  the G3588  son G5207 G3588  of God G2316  has come, G2240  and G2532  has given G1325  to us G1473  thought G1271  that G2443  we should know G1097  the one G3588  true; G228  and G2532  we are G1510.2.4  in G1722  the one G3588  true, G228  in G1722G3588  his son G5207 G1473  Jesus G*  Christ. G5547  This one G3778  is G1510.2.3  the G3588true G228God,G2316and G2532  the G3588  life G2222  eternal. G166

1Jn 5:20 οιδαμεν δε G1492 G1161  οτι G3754  ο G3588  υιος G5207  του G3588θεου G2316  ηκει G2240  και G2532  δεδωκεν G1325  ημιν G1473  διανοιαν G1271  ινα G2443  γινωσκωμεν G1097  τον G3588  αληθινον G228  και G2532  εσμεν G1510.2.4  εν G1722  τω G3588  αληθινω G228  εν G1722  τω G3588  υιω αυτου G5207G1473  Ιησου G*  χριστω G5547  ουτος G3778  εστιν G1510.2.3  ο G3588  αληθινος G228 θεοςG2316  και G2532  η G3588  ζωη G2222  αιωνιος G166
When the true God is spoken of alone in a paragraph-Theos was used, but when spoken of with 2 God and god in a paragraph-Ton Theon was given to the true God and Theos for god.
 
When the true God is spoken of alone in a paragraph-Theos was used, but when spoken of with 2 God and god in a paragraph-Ton Theon was given to the true God and Theos for god.
You just keep repeating your explanation.
I believe you don’t even read my responses.
You are just ready to react without understanding my point. The point is “theos” been declared as “the true God and eternal life” in 1John 5:20.
You can reply with evidence or you just can’t.
 
When the true God is spoken of alone in a paragraph-Theos was used, but when spoken of with 2 God and god in a paragraph-Ton Theon was given to the true God and Theos for god.
Can you cite a respected and well known Greek authority or text that demonstrates the accuracy of your statement above? (Don’t worry; I’m not holding my breath!)

You are ignoring the very basic, 1st Semester level information about Greek declination of nouns.

Nouns have Case:
Nominative = the subject of the sentence or clause
Genitive = possession belonging to the noun

Dative = the noun is grammatically an indirect object

Accusative = the grammatical direct object.

Theos - Θεός is nominative.
Theou - Θεοῦ genitive.
TheO - Θεῷ is dative.
Theon - Θεόν is accusative.

The meaning is identical for all declinations.

To deny this is to throw out the rudimentary foundations of Greek syntax and grammar.


Doug
 
Can you cite a respected and well known Greek authority or text that demonstrates the accuracy of your statement above? (Don’t worry; I’m not holding my breath!)

You are ignoring the very basic, 1st Semester level information about Greek declination of nouns.

Nouns have Case:
Nominative = the subject of the sentence or clause
Genitive = possession belonging to the noun

Dative = the noun is grammatically an indirect object

Accusative = the grammatical direct object.

Theos - Θεός is nominative.
Theou - Θεοῦ genitive.
TheO - Θεῷ is dative.
Theon - Θεόν is accusative.

The meaning is identical for all declinations.

To deny this is to throw out the rudimentary foundations of Greek syntax and grammar.


Doug
May we know what verses that mentioned the four?
 
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Masculine (2nd declension)​

θεόςθεοί
θεοῦ
θεῷθεοῖς
θεόνθεούς
θεέ

[th]


[/th]
[th]
S

[/th][th]
P

[/th]
[th]
N

[/th]
[th]
G

[/th]
[th]
D

[/th]
[th]
A

[/th]
[th]
V

[/th]​

θεοῦ Is the Genetive case of θεός. Only
θεός and θεόν appear in John 1:1.
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος, καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν, καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος.


Doug
I think they all have same Strong#G2316.
 
You just keep repeating your explanation.
I believe you don’t even read my responses.
You are just ready to react without understanding my point. The point is “theos” been declared as “the true God and eternal life” in 1John 5:20.
You can reply with evidence or you just can’t.
Gods written word is evidence over the twisting's of men. Explain to us all then Why at John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4 the true God is called Ton Theon and the Word and satan are called Theos, yet one was given God and one was given god when its the same exact word?The same word that is different from what the true God is called at both spots. And show us all the Greek to English translating rule that makes that 1 word different at both spots?
 
Can you cite a respected and well known Greek authority or text that demonstrates the accuracy of your statement above? (Don’t worry; I’m not holding my breath!)

You are ignoring the very basic, 1st Semester level information about Greek declination of nouns.

Nouns have Case:
Nominative = the subject of the sentence or clause
Genitive = possession belonging to the noun

Dative = the noun is grammatically an indirect object

Accusative = the grammatical direct object.

Theos - Θεός is nominative.
Theou - Θεοῦ genitive.
TheO - Θεῷ is dative.
Theon - Θεόν is accusative.

The meaning is identical for all declinations.

To deny this is to throw out the rudimentary foundations of Greek syntax and grammar.


Doug
I see your 4 Greek words. Then you can explain to all of us why Theos given to the Word and to satan ( John 1:1-2Cor 4:4) while the true God is called Ton Theon is translated God to one and god to the other. Show us the Greek to English rule that makes that possible. Since Ton Theon in both spots is the guaranteed meaning of capitol G GOD at both spots. Why is the Word not called Ton Theon at John 1:1 if he is being called God?
 
I see your 4 Greek words. Then you can explain to all of us why Theos given to the Word and to satan ( John 1:1-2Cor 4:4) while the true God is called Ton Theon is translated God to one and god to the other. Show us the Greek to English rule that makes that possible. Since Ton Theon in both spots is the guaranteed meaning of capitol G GOD at both spots. Why is the Word not called Ton Theon at John 1:1 if he is being called God?
There is a difference between 2 Cor 4:4 and John 1:1. John 1:1 contains an uppercase Θεὸς for God and 2 Cor 4:4 contains a lowercase θεὸς for the god of this world. Do you see the difference? The decision to capitalize or not has already been made in Koine Greek. You must follow the Koine Greek, not the JW heretics script.

Many people don't immediately see the difference because they're not used to the Greek letter Θ/θ and its upper/lower case variance, but that's no excuse for those who translate the word of God. That's why the JW translators are called the Translator Butchers of John 1:1.
 
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