The truth concerning Paleo-Hebrew

That is your empty claim. If it were any other claim for any other language, you would find it preposterous because it is preposterous.

I find your claim absurd.

Fonts don't change word meanings, that's not how languages work.

Like, where is that even coming from in your thinking?

Where did you get that idea?

Are these not English letters anymore:

719sCLCXjdL.jpg
 
I find your claim absurd.

Fonts don't change word meanings, that's not how languages work.

Like, where is that even coming from in your thinking?

Where did you get that idea?

Are these not English letters anymore:

719sCLCXjdL.jpg

How does this compare to Old Anglo-Saxon? How about the divergent Latin English Latin Alphabet?

Are you even paying attention to what I say? In fact, I believe you're purposely being deceptive.

Either you are ignorant of the evidence or you're purposely being deceptive.

Claiming the language in which Enoch or Job was written is the exact same language that has survived to today is utterly preposterous. Claiming the language that Moses first wrote is the exact same language as today is PREPOSTEROUS.

Do you even know what an archaic word represents?
 
Claiming the language in which Enoch or Job was written is the exact same language that has survived to today is utterly preposterous. Claiming the language that Moses first wrote is the exact same language as today is PREPOSTEROUS.

I agree, except that's not my claim, I'm talking about font styles, not grammar and syntax.

Some words change over time, some don't.
 
I agree, except that's not my claim, I'm talking about font styles, not grammar and syntax.

Some words change over time, some don't.

It is alphabet as well. We don't have enough information to make claims that the Hebrew alphabet has not change. We know from the divergent regional dialects of the Phoenician language that this has happened. We do have enough information to know there are 3 or 4 streams" of the OT text. We can not exclude the possibility that some of the issues that exists have come about because how ALL languages changed. The "forks" in the "streams" are not just from scribe errors.

I'm not saying that are HUGE differences. Just examining the evidence that has rightfully caused issues.
 
That is nothing more than your claim. You're appealing to the power of God as if God agrees with you. He doesn't. You're using God's good name and character to defend your false claim. God doesn't lie.
The Only Way to Salvation is to appeal to the Power of God.

The Only Way to Know Truth is thru the Power of God = the Holy Spirit

Since i agree with my HEAVENLY FATHER'S WORDS, then it STANDS upon HIS Reason that i am in Fellowship with His WILL.

There is only One Way to prove or disprove when a person is lying/and/or misguided = by His Word = Proverbs 30:5-6 and Matthew 4:1-11

Every word of God is pure;
He is a shield to those who put their trust in Him.
Do not add to His words,
Lest He rebuke you, and you be found a liar.
 
Not saying Wikipedia is an authoritative source... but below is a common argument made by Hebrew sources concerning ancient Hebrew.



Can anyone reconcile this claim to what Jesus told the Samaritan Woman "at the well"....

John 4:22 You worship ye know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of the Jews.

Isn't it extraordinarily "odd" (to say the least) that Jesus would make such a statement to indicate the many mistakes of the Samaritans..... Yet, some "scholar" today would insist that the Proto-Hebrew language was "preserved perfectly" in the Samaritan alphabet?

Not to mention the absurd idea that Hebrews adopted the script of the Persian Empire..... Apart from self serving conjecture from "scholars"......

Just where is the evidence for such claims?
No, wikepedia in not a proper source for many things. That the Samaritans still made use of paleo-hebrew is great evidence that paleo-hebrew was in use during the time of the Israel and Judah. There's no issue with that at all. Don't understand why you would have a problem with that fact.

What the article fails to mention is that it is NOT a Phoenecian invention. There is evidence in the mining caves in the Sinai Peninsula of cave writings of paleo-hebrew. It most likely was invented (or improved) during the time of Joseph and Moses. Ready for the time when Moses needed to write down the Pentateuch.

Later, after the exile in Babylon, the Jews adopted Aramaic and its alphabet. Again, what's the problem with this fact? This was in preparation for the New Testament documents to be written in Aramaic and then transmitted throughout the middle east and beyond since Aramaic was the lingua franca during that time of that area.
 
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